OPHTHALMOLOGY 2014

CORNEA & CONJUNCTIVA

1) An immunocompetent male presents with difficulty in vision. He gives a history of vagetative material fallen in the affected eye. On examination a corneal ulcer with feathery margin & creamy exudate is seen. Few satellite lesions were also noted. The likely diagnosis is-

a. Fusarium

b. Acanthameba

c. Pneumococci

4. Corynebacterium

2) Corneal dystrophies are degenerations that are usually-

a. Primary and bilaterally

b. Primary and unilaterally

c. Primary, bilaterally with systematic involvement

d. Primary, unilaterally without systematic involvement

3) A soft contact lens wearer developed pain and itching of the eye shows reticular pattern on corneal epithelium. The cause could be:

a. Coneal Dystrophy

b. Acanthamoeba

c. Pseudomonas

d. Recurrent Erosions

4) A malnourished child from poor socioeconomic  status, residing in overcrowded & dirty areas presents with a nodule around limbus with hyperemia of conjunctiva. Other significant findings were axillary & cervical lymph adenopathy-

a. Phylectnular conjunctivitis

2. Poreign body reanulome

c. Scleritis

d. Episcleritis

5) Corneal guttatae are seen in:

a. Macular dystrophy

b. Fuch’s  endothelial dystrophy

c. Reis- Buckler dystrophy

d. Meesmans dystrophy

6) The most common post-op complication after penetrating keratoplasty is:

a. Graft rejection

b. Non-infective keratitis

c. Astigmatism

d. Infective keratitis

7) Which is the most common cause of neonatal conjuctivities?

a. Gronococcus

b. Chlamydia

c. Chemical

d. Staphylococcus aureus

8) In Keratoconus all are seen except:

a. Munson’s sign

b. Thinning of cornea in center

c. DIstortion of corneal reflex at center

d. Hypermetropic refractive error found

9) All are complications of Herpes Zoster Opthalmicus except:

a. Keratitis

b. Keratoconjuctivities sicca

c. Uveitis

d. Necrotising retinitis

10) Scleromalacia perforans is a complication of:

a. Rheumatoid arthritis

b. Sarcoidosis

c. Tuberculosis

d. Herpes zoster

LENS

11) A child presents with bilateral white papillary reflex. On slit lamp examination there is zone of opacity around fetal nucleus with spokes of wheel like arrangement towards centre. The most probable diagnosis would be-

a. Cataracta purvulenta

b. Lamellar cataract

c. Posterior polar cataract

d. Coronary cataract

12) A patient presents with diplopia in one eye, on examination with oblique illumination- golden crescants and on axial illumination back/dark crescants are seen. The likely diagnosis would be-

a. Ectopia lentis

b. Lenticous

c. Coloboma

d. Microspherophakia

13) Following 2 days of successful phacoemulsificatin and IOL placement, a diabetic patient presents with redness, pain & grey white papillary reflex. Patient also shows hypopyon, retrolenta flare posterior syecheae. The likely diagnosis is-

a. Post op endophthalmitis

b. Post op Glaucoma

c. Post op Keratitis

d. Post op Cyclitis

14) A 55 years old patient complains of decreased distance vision. However, now he does not require his near glasses for near work. The most likely cause is:

a. Posterior subcapsular cataract

b. Zonular cataract

c. Neuclear sclerosis

d. Anterior subcapsular cataract

15) In general, the last muscle to be rendered akinetic with a retrobulber anesthetic block is:

a. Superior rectus

b. Superior oblique

c. Inferior oblique

d. Levator palpebral superioris

16) Thickness of posterior capsule of human crystalline lens is:

a. 1 microns

b. 2 microns

c. 3 microns

 d. 4 microns

 GLAUCOMA:

17) Acquired nasolacrimal duct obstruction is a side effect of therapy of which of the following medications?

a. Timolol

b. Brimonidine

c. Dorzolamide

d. Pilocarpine

18) A male patient with a history of hypermature cataract presents with a 2 day history of ciliary congestion, photophobia, blurring of vision and on examination has a deep anterior chamber in the right eye. The left eye is normal. The diagnosis is:

a. Phacomorphic glaucoma

b. Phacolytic glaucoma

c. Phacotoxic glaucoma

d. Phacoanaphylactic uveitis

19) Earliest manifestation of chronic simple glaucoma:

a. Nasal step

b. Arcuate scotoma

c. Scotoma in Bjerrums area

d. Ring scotoma

20) Conconcentration of bimatoprost used for treatment of glaucoma:

a. 0.003%

b. b 0.005 %

c. c 0.05 %

d. d 0.03%

21) True about buphthalmos are all except:

a. Large cornea

b. haab’s stria

c. Shallow AC

d. Medical treatment helps

22) Argon laser trabeculoplasty is used in:

a. Closed angle glaucoma

b. Primary open glaucoma

c. Neovascular glaucoma

d. Aphakic glaucoma

UVEITIS

23) A female presented with breathlessness, arthralgia and blurring of vision with granulomatous anterior uveitis. Which is the most likely etiology?

a. Tubercular uveitis

b. HLA-B27 related uveitis

c. Intraocular lymphoma

d. Ocular sarcoidosis

24) A 32 years old male presents with unilateral diminished vision in the right eye. On examination, there is mild iritis, vitreitis & focal necrotic lesion is seen at macula. The most likely diagnosis is-

a. Multiple Evanescent White  Dot Syndrome

b. Ocular toxoplasmosis

c. Multifocal choroiditis

d. Ocular sarcoidosis

25) The most common posterior segment pathology responsible for diminished vision in anterior uveitis is:

a. Vitreous floaters

b. Exudative retinal detachment

c. Inflammatory edema

d. Cystoid Macular edema

26) A 35 year old male on slit lamp shows keratic precipitates & aqueous flare in his right eye. No synechiae but a complicated cataract is seen. The probable diagnosis would be-

a. Intermediate uveitis

b. Heerfordt’s syndrome

c. Subacute iridocyclitis

d. Heterochromic iridocyclitis of Fuch’s