DISEASES OF LENS:
1.
Which of the following ATT is associated with cataract:
a)INH
b)Rifampicin
c)Ethambutol
d)Capreomycin
2.
Riders are commonly seen in:
a) Blue-dot cataract
b) zonular cataract
c) Embryonal
nuclear cataract
d) diffuse nuclear cataract
3.
In general the first muscle to be rendered akinetic with retrobulbar anesthetic
block is:
a) Superior rectus
b) Superior oblique
c) lnferior rectus
d) l nferior obloque
4.History
of colored halos is present in all except:
a) Mucopurulent ConJUNCTIVITIS
b) Closed angle Glaucoma
c) Steroid induced Glaucoma
d) Phalcosis
5.
Anterior polar cataract develops after:
a) Diadetes mellitus
b) Penetrating injury of cornea
c) lrradiation
d) Chalcosis
6.
Typical diabetes cataract has characteristic morphology of:
a) Sunflower
b) Oil droplet
c) Snowflake
7.
Constantly changing refractory error is seen in
a) Traumatic cataract
b) Diadetic cataract
c) Morgagnian cataract
d) Intumescent cataract
8.
During cataract surgery, the best irrigating solution to use is:
a) DSS
b) Ringer lactate
c) Normal saline
d) BSS with glutathione
9.
Sunflower cataract is seen in:
a) Concussion injiury
b) Penetrating injury
c) Hypertension
d) Diabetes
10.
Anterior Lenticonus is found in:
a) Lowes syndrome
b) Turners syndrome
c) Down`s syndrome
d) Alports synsrome
11.
Steroid induced cataract is
a) Anterior subcapsular
b) osterior subcapsular
c) Nuclear
d) Cupulliform cataract
12.
Intra ocular ienses are made up of
a) PMMA
b) HEMA
c) Glass
d) plastic
13.
Ectopia Lentis is seen in all the following conditions except;
a) Congenital Rubella
b) Marchesani`s Syndrome.
c) Narfan syndrome
d) Homocystinuria
14.
Most common type of Congenital Cataract is:
a)
Capsular b) Zonular c) Coralliform d) Blue Dot
15. Clinical features of complicated cataract
are all except:
a) Polychromatic luster
b) Axial spread of opacity
c) Opacity along sutures
d) Posterior subcapsular opacity
16. Laser used in cutting out cataract capsule
is:
a) Nd YAG Laser b) Argoon Laser
c) Dye Laser d) Diode
17. All are methods of intracapsular extraction
of lens except
a) Phacoemulsification
b) Cryo surgery
c) Forceps delivery
d) Irisophake
18. Intraocular lens are made of:
a) PMMA b) Silicon c) Hydrogel
d)
Acrylic e) All
19. In finchams’ test , there is break-up of halo
and rejoining (patient presents with colored halo and giddiness).Diagnosis is:
a)
Open- Angel Glaucoma
b)
Cataract
c)
Mucopurulent Conjunctivitis
d)
Acute Angle closure glaucoma.
20. Polycromatic luster
is seen in:
a) Zonular cataract
b) Posterrior Subcapsular Cataract
c) Nuclear Cataract
d) Anterior subcapsular cataract
21.
Vossius ring is seen in:
a) Anterior capsule of lens
b) Posterior capsule of lens
c) Nucleus
d) Cortex
22.”Second sight of old
age” is generally due to:
a) Coronary Cataract
b) Nuclear Cataract
c) Anterior capsular cataract
d) Posterior polar cataract
23. Sunflower- type
cataract is characteristically seen in:
a) Chalcosis b) Diabetes
c) Stargardts’ disease d) Congenital syphilis
24. Hamarlopia occurs
in:
a) Central cataract b) Peripheral Cataract
c) Hypermature cataract d) Mature cataract
25. Ideal site for intra-ocular lens implantation
is:
a) Anterior to pupil
b) Ciliary sulcus
c) On Anterior capsule
d) On posterior capsule
26. Lens capsule is
thinnest at the:
a) Centre Anteriorly
b) At Equator
c) Centre posteriorly
d) Superiorly
27.The most commpn
complication of hypermature sclerotic cataract is:
a.
Dislocation of the lens
b.Phacomorphic
Glaucoma
c.Uveitis
d.
Neovascularisation of retina.
28.Developmental cataract
is seenin:
a.Rubella
b.Galactosemia
c.Mongolian
idiocy
d.Cretinism
e.All
29.A 60-year old male
patient operated for cataract 6 months back now complains of floaters and
sudden loss of vision. The diagnosis is:
a. Vitreous
Hemorrhage
b.
Retinal Detachment
c.
CRAO
d.
CME
ORBIT
20)
A boy presents with diplopia abd restruction of eye moivements following blunt
trauma to his eye. reveals blow-out
fracture of orbit Which part of orbit is
most likely damaged.
a) Superior wall
b) Pnferior well
c) Medial well
d) Lateral well
21)
Leucocoria can be seen in all except:
a) Persistent
hyperplastic primary vitreous
b) Congenital glaucoma
c) Fungal
endophthalmitis
d) Retinoblastoma
22)
Which is not a complication of blunt trauma to eye:
a) Hyphema
b) Retinal detachment
c) Double perforation
of iris
d) LIdodialysis
23)
Best X-ray view to visualize superior orbital fissure is:
a) AP
b) Basal
c) Towne’s
d) Caldwell luc’s view
24)
Pseudohyopoyon is seen in:
a) Mycotic infection
b) Herpetic infection
c) sympathetic
ophthalmia
d) Retinoblastoma
25)
Unilaterl pulsating exophthalmos is presentin:
a) Orbital varices
b) Cavernous sinus
thrombosis
c) Carotico cavernous
aneurysm
d) Toxic thyroid goiter
26)
A patient had running nose and pain over medical aspect of eye being trated
with decongestants for many days. He
later developed chemosis, protosis and diplopia on abduction of right eye with
congestion of optic disc. what is the
probable diagnosis?
a) Acute ethmoridal
sinusitis
b) Orbital cellulitis
c) Cavernous sinus
thrombosis
d) Orbital apex
syndrome
27)
Earliset sign of cavernous sinus thrombosis is:
a) Proptosis
b) Vomiting
c) Ophthalmoplegia
d) Swelling of lids
28)
The average volume of orbit is:
a) 6cc
b) 12cc
c) 24cc
d) 30cc
29)
Enculeation means:
a) Removal of contents
of globe
b) Removal of the
content of the globe and all of sclera except for a frill around the optic
nerve
c) Removal of entire
globe along with a portion of optic nerve
d) Removal of the
entire content of orbit
30)
Which is the weakest wall of the orbit:
a. Superior
b. Medial
c. Lateral
d. Inferior
31)
Vortex vein invasion is commonly seen in:
a. Retinoblastoma
b. Malignant melanoma
c. Optic nerve glioma
d. Medullo-epitheliomas
32)
Hereditary retinoblastoma develop the following chromosomal deletion:
a. 13 q 14
b. 13 p 14
c. 14 p 13
d. 14 q 13
33)
Frills excision is done in:
a. Intraocular tumor
b. Endophtalmitis
c. Panophtalmitis
d. F.B. in eye
34) A one year old child having leucocoria ws
detected to be having a unilateral, large retinoblastoma filling half the globe
Current therapy would involve:
a. Enucleation
b. Chemotherapy
followed by local dye
c. Direct laser
abeation using photo dynamic
d. Cryotherapy
e. Scleral radiotherapy
followed by chemotherapy
35)Fasanella
servat operation is specifically indicated in:
a. Congenital ptosis
b. Steroid-induced
ptosis
c. Myasthenia gravis
d. Horner’s syndrome
36)
Most common parasitic infection found in the orbit is:
a. Cysticercosis
b. Entamoeba
c. Onchocerciasis
d. Toxoplasmosis
37)
Peripheral orbital space lies between:
a. Bones of orbital
wall and periorbital and Extraocular muscles
b. In the muscle cone
d. Around the sclera
38)
All the nerves pass through SOF except:
a. Oculomotor
b. Optic nerve
c. Trochlear
d. Opthalmic division
of the fifth nerve
39)
Exopthalmos is a feature of all except:
a. Carotico-Cavernous
fistula
b. Corotid artery
aneurysm
c. Myasthenia gravis
d. Neurofibromatosis
40)
Proptosis in the young child is produced by following except:
a. Leukemia
b. Retinoblastoma
c. Glioma
d. Meningioma
41)
In panophtalmitis the treatment of choice is:
a. Enucleation
b. Evisceration
c. Exentreration
d. None of the above
42)
A45 yrs old male presented with proptosis with reduced upward and downward
movements. On USG there is a cystic lesion in superior rectus that contains
hyperdense material. The next likely diagnosis is:
a. Orbital
cysticercosis
b. Dermoid
c. Hemangioma
d. Retinoblastoma
43)SOF
lies between:
a. Body of sphenoid and
lesser wings of sphenoid
b. Body of sphenoid and
greater wings of sphenoid
c. Lesser and greater
wing of sphenoid
d. Zygomatic bone and
frontal bone
44)
Which of the following causes U/L proptosis:
a. Glioma of the optic
nerve
b. Craniosynostosi
c. Cavernous sinus
thrombosis
d. Thyroid
opthalmopathy
45)
Bilateral congenial exopthalmos is seen in:
a. Goldenhar syndrome
b. Cloverleaf skull
c. Horners syndroms
d. Neurofibromatosis
MCQs:
|
1
|
D
|
11
|
B
|
21
|
B
|
31
|
B
|
41
|
D
|
|
2
|
D
|
12
|
D
|
22
|
C
|
32
|
A
|
42
|
A
|
|
3
|
A
|
13
|
D
|
23
|
D
|
33
|
C
|
43
|
C
|
|
4
|
A
|
14
|
B
|
24
|
D
|
34
|
A
|
44
|
A
|
|
5
|
C
|
15
|
A
|
25
|
C
|
35
|
D
|
45
|
B
|
|
6
|
A
|
16
|
D
|
26
|
C
|
36
|
A
|
|
|
|
7
|
C
|
17
|
A
|
27
|
C
|
37
|
B
|
|
|
|
8
|
D
|
18
|
C
|
28
|
D
|
38
|
B
|
|
|
|
9
|
C
|
19
|
C
|
29
|
C
|
39
|
C
|
|
|
|
10
|
A
|
20
|
B
|
30
|
B
|
40
|
D
|
|
|
OCULAR ADENEXAE:
1)
Squamous blepharitis leads to the following complications except:
a. Trichiasis
b. Madarosis
c. Tylosis
d. Poliosis
2)Stay
is inflammation of:
a. Gland of zeiss
b. Gland of moll
c. Meibomian gland
d. Lacrimal gland
3)
Lid-lag on the ptotic side down-gaze is characteristic of:
a. Congenital ptosis
b. Traumatic ptosis
c. Myogenic ptosis
d. Synkinetic ptosis
4)
Commonest tumor of lid is:
a. Adenocarcinoma
b. BAsal-cell carcinoma
c. Malignant melanoma
d. Squamous cell
carcinoma
5)
Bilateral ptosis is not seen in:
a. Marfans syndrome
b. Myasthenia dystrophy
c. Myotonic dystrophy
d. Kearns sayre
syndrome
6)
Important causes of entropion of upper lid are all except:
a. Trachoma
b. Chemical burn
c. Involutional
d. Steven- Johanson
syndrome
7)
Wheelers operation is done in:
a. Ectropion
b. Entropion
c. Ptosis
d. Trichiasis
8)
Ptsos with weakness of orbicularies oculi is seen in:
a. Polymyositis
b. Myasthenia gravis
c. Eaton- lambert
syndrome
d. Thyrotoxicosis
9)
Madarosis is seen in:
a. T.B
b. DM
c. Leprosy
d. Waardenberg’s
syndrome
10)
Average height of palpebral fissure is:
a. 8 mm
b. 9 mm
c. 10 mm
d. 11 mm
11)
Conjuctivoplasty is indicated for:
a. Cicatrical ectropion
b. Senile entropion
c. Senile ectropion
d. Cicatrical entropion
12)
Modified Kuhnt Szymanowaski procedure is done for:
a. Proptosis
b. Ectropion
c. Entropiom
d. Ptosis
13) Everbusch operation is done for:
a. Proptosis
b. ptosis
c. Lagopathalmos
d. Etropion
14)
All are complication of chronic staphylococcal blepharoconjunctivities except:
a. Stye
b. Marginal keratitis
c. Follicular
conjuctivities
d. Preseptal cellulitis
15)
Cause of pseudoptosis is:
a. Third nerve palsy
b. Pthsis bulbi
c. Lid retraction
d. Seventh nerve palsy
16)
Surgery done in Marcus Gunn ptosis:
a. Fasanella Servat
b. Levator Resection
c. Levator aponeurosis
with Frontalis sling
d. Wheelers operation
17)
Commonest cause of cicatrical entropion in India is:
a. Trachoma
b. TB
c. Burns
d. Trauma
18)
Fasanella Servat is done for:
a. Severe ptosis
b. Mild ptosis
c. Involutional ptosis
d. Jaw-Winking
phenomenon
19)
Most painful condition of the eyelid is:
a. Meibomian cyst
b. Malignant melanoma
c. Trichiasis
d. Sebaceous cell
carcinoma
20)
Blepharophimosis is generally associated with all of the following except:
a. Ectropion
b. Distichiasis
c. Epicanthus
d. Telecanthus
21)
Ankyloblepharon is:
a. Adhesion of globe to
the lid
b. Adhesion of both the lids
c. Adhesion of the lids to the fornix
d. Adhesion of lid to
globe not involving the fornix
22)
Blepharochalasia is:
a. Usually B/L
b. Seen in old age
c. Due to relaxation
and defect in orbital fecia
d. All of the
23)
Hypertophy of lid edge and drooping is called:
a. Lagophthalmos
b. tylosis
c. Ectropion
d. Entropion
24)
Most common intraorbital metastatic tumor in children is:
a. Non- Hodgkins
lymphoma
b. Neuroblastoma
c. Ca Nasopharynx
d. Malignant melanoma
25)
Which type of retinoblastoma causes retional detachment?
a. Gliomaexophytum
b. Gliomaendophytum
c. Glioma planum
d. All of above
KEY:
|
1
|
2
|
3
|
4
|
5
|
6
|
7
|
8
|
9
|
10
|
|
A
|
A
|
A
|
B
|
A
|
C
|
B
|
B
|
C
|
C
|
|
11
|
12
|
13
|
14
|
15
|
16
|
17
|
18
|
19
|
20
|
|
B
|
C
|
B
|
C
|
B
|
C
|
A
|
B
|
A
|
B
|
|
21
|
22
|
23
|
24
|
25
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
B
|
D
|
B
|
B
|
A
|
|
|
|
|
|
Lacrimal Drainage System:
1)
Watering from the eyes of an infant occurs in all of the following except:
a. Congenital
dacryocystitis
b. Bupthalmos
c. Cornial foreign body
d. Corneal dystrophy
2)
Mother of 3 months old infant complains of watering from one eye. On pressing
of lacrimal sac there is regurgitation of mucopurulent material. The
appropriate treatment is:
a. DCR
b. Probing
c. Probing with
syringing
d. Local massage and
antibiotics
3)
Most common ocular finding in mumps is:
a. Chorio- retiniyis
b. Anterior uveitis
c. Haemorrhagic
conjuctivities
d. Dacryo- cysto
adenitis
4)
Chronic dacryocystitis is more common
in:
a. Children
b. Elderly male
c. Women
d. Young males
5)
Most common organism causing chronic dacryocystitis is:
a. Staph aureus
b. Pseudo pyocyanea
c. Streptococcus
haemolyticus
d. Mycotuerculosis
6)
Most common tumor of lacrimal gland is:
a. Adenoid cystic
carcinoma
b. Adenocarcinoma
c. Bening mixed tumor
d. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
7)
In DCR operation, opening in nose made in:
a. Superior meatus
b. Inferior meatus
c. Middle meatus
d. Superior turbinate
8)
Valve at the entry of the common canaliculus:
a. Valve of Hasner
b. Valve of Rosenmuller
c. Both
d. None
9)
Nerve for tear secretion is:
a. Greater superficial
petrosal nerve
d. Facial nerve
c. Deep petrosal nerve
d. Maxillary nerve
10)
DCR is contraindicated in:
a. Mucocoele
b. Chronic
acryocystitis
c. NLD obstruction
d. TB of the lacrimal
sac
11)
Distance of Angular vein from medial canthus as it passes over medial palpebral
ligament is:
a. 6 mm
b. 10 mm
c. 8 mm
d. 12 mm
12)
Treatment of lacrimal mucocoele is:
a. DCR
b. Probing
c. DCT
d. Antibiotics
13)
Syndrome characterized by symmetrical enlargement of lacrimal and salivary
glands:
a. Sjogren’s syndrome
b. Mikulikz syndrome
c. Sturuge Weber
d. KCS
14)
Volume of tear film is:
a. 5 μl
b. 6 μl
c. 7 μl
d.8 μl
15)
Which of the following is false:
a. Normal BUT is more
than 10 secs
b. Jones dye test is
used for dry eye
c. Rose Bengal stains
dead cells
d. Acetycystaine
dissolve mucus
16)
Ideal time for syringing and probing is:
a. 2-3 months
b. 4-6 months
c. 1 year
d. 2 years
KEY
|
1
|
2
|
3
|
4
|
5
|
6
|
7
|
8
|
|
D
|
D
|
D
|
C
|
A
|
C
|
C
|
B
|
|
9
|
10
|
11
|
12
|
13
|
14
|
15
|
16
|
|
A
|
D
|
C
|
A
|
B
|
C
|
B
|
C
|
FUNDUS:
1)
Amsler grid chart is used for testing:
a. Angle of primary
deviation
b. Angle of secondary Deviaton
c. Macular function
d. Optic nerve function
2)
Earlist opthalmoscopic sign of diabetic retiopathy is:
a. Hard exudates
b. Vitreous haemorrhage
c. Dot haemorrhage
d. Microaneurysms
3)
The commonest cause of rubeosis iridis is:
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Central vein
occlusion
c. Central retional
artery occlusion
d. Carotide stenosis
4)
Which type of retinal break is more likely to result in RD:
a. Symptomatic superior
horse-shoe break
b. Asymptomatic
horse-shoe break
c. Symptomatic round
hole
d. Lattice degeneration
5)
Amaurotic cat’s eye reflex is seen in all of the following except:
a. Retinoblastoma
b. Cyclitic membrance
c. Endophthalmitis
d. Granulomatous
iridocyclitis
6)All
are true regarding Easel disease except:
a. Occurs in young
b. Vitreous haemorrhage
c. Vascular sheathing
d. Optic neuritis
e. Retinal detachment
7) Cattle-track appearance is seen in:
a. CRAO
b. CRVO
c. BRAO
d. BRVO
8)
All of the following changes are caused by being hypertension in retina except:
a. Narrowing of arterioles
b. Exudates
c. Cotton woolspots
d. Retinal
haemorrhage
9)
For flourancence angiography of retina, dye is injected in:
a. Femoral artery
b. Antecubital vein
c. Opthalmic artery
d. Internal cardio
artery
10)
Sauce and cheese retinopathy is seen in:
a.CMV
b.Rubella
c. Acute congestive
glaucoma
d. Congenital syphilis
11)
Cause of acute loss of vision in patient of alcoholic pancreatitis is:
a.Purtscher’s retionopathy
b. Sudden alcohol with
drawl
c. Acute congestive
glaucoma
d. CRAO
12)
All are fundus findings of diabetic retinopathy except:
a. Micronenrysms
b. Retinal haemorrhage
c. Arteriolar
dilatation
d. Neovascularisation
13)
Laser photocoagulation affects which layer of the retina:
a. Layer of rods and
cones
b. Retinal pigment
epithelium
c. Inner plexiform
layer
d. Nerve fibre layer
14)
Pepper salt fundus is seen in:
a. Multiple sclerosis
b. Cystinosis
c. Weil marchesani
syndrome
d. Congenital syphilis
15)
Toxic maculopathy occurs due to all except:
a. Tamoxifen
b. Chloroquine
c. Thioridazine
d. Steroids
16)
Cherry-red spot over retina is seen in all except:
a. Tay sach’s disease
b. Neimann pick disease
c. CRAO
d. Batten Mayo syndrome
17)
Thinnest part of retina is:
a. Optic disc
b. Fovea centralis
c. Ora serrata
d. Mid-Peripheral
retina
18)
Diabetic retinopathy is common in:
a. NIDDM of 2 year duration
b. IDDM of 2 year
duration
c. Juvenile onset
diabetes before puberty
d. Pregnancy included
gestational diabetes
19)
The lesser procedure, most often used for treating iris neovascularisation is:
a.
Goniophotocoagulation
b. Laser
trabeculoplasty
c. PAn retinal
photocoagulation
d. Laser iridoplasty
20)
Fundus of young patient shows pigment along retinal vessels, waxy exudates over
retina and pale disc. The diagnosis is:
a. Retinitis
pigmentatosa
b. Diabetic retinopathy
c. Central serous
retinopathy
d. Lattice degeneration
of retina
21) A 66- year old elderly male present with
heart disease and has sudden loss of vision in one eye, examination reveals a
cherry red spot over the fundus, the likely diagnosis is:
a. Central retinal vein
occlusion
b. Central retinal
artery occlusion
c. maurosis fugax
d. Acute ischemic optic
neuritis
22)
Most common cause of blindness in non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy is:
a. Sub-retinal
heamorrhage
b. Macular edema
c. Retinal detachment
d. Vitreous haemorrhage
23)
Henle,s layer is:
a. Outer Nuclear layer
b. Outer plexiform
layer
c. Inner Nuclear layer
d. Inner plexiform
layer
24)
Posterior segment feature of HR include all except:
a. Macular star
b. Cotton wool spots
c. Microaneurysms
d. Elschnig spots
25)
Cystoid macular edema involves break in:
a. Outer blood retinal
barrier
b. Inner blood retinal
barrier
c. Both of the above
d. None
26)
ETDRS vision chart study is done in patients with diabetic retinopathy. ETDRS
stands for:
a. Emergency treatment
for diabetic retinopathy and study
b. Eye testing on
rotator drum and its study
c. Extended therapy for
diabetic retinopathy and its study
d. Early treatment for
diabetic retinopathy study
27)
A young male presented with sudden painless loss of vision. He recovered
spontaneously within 3 months. Most likely cause of his blindness:
a. Central serous
retinopathy
b. Macular hole
c. Myopic crescent
d. Vitreous haemorrhage
28)
The color best appreciated by the central cones of our foevo-macular area are:
a. Red and blue
b. Blue and Green
c. Red and Green
d. Blue and Yellow
29)
Night blindness occurs in all except:
a. Retinitis
pigmentation
b. High myopia
c. Vitamin A
deficiencies
d. Tobacco amblyopia
30)
Photoretinitis is seen with:
a. Ultra violet rays
b. Infrared rays
c. Gamma rays
d. X-rays
31)
Significant loss of vision in a patient with hypertension can occur due to all
of the following except:
a. Occipital infarct
b. Anterior ischemic
optic neuropathy
c. Papilloedema
d. Retinal haemorrhages
in fundus examination
32)
All of the following are features of CRVO except:
a. Gross impairment of
vision
b. Sever pain in the
eye
c. Superficial
haemorrhages in fundus examination
d. Markedly dilate
veins
33)
Which of the following staphyloma occurs in high myopia:
a. Ciliary staphyloma
b.Posterior staphyloma
c. Anterior staphyloma
d. Intercalary
staphyloma
34)
Normal ratio of size of arteries and veins in fundus is:
a. 2:3
b. 3;2
c. 1:1
d. 3:5
35)
In RD fluid accumulates b/w:
a. Layers of OPL and
INL
b. Neorpsensory retina
and RPE
c. NFL and rest of the
retina
d. Between RPF and
Bruch’s membrane
36)
Acquire retinoschisis has following features except:
a. It is splitting of
sensory retina in two layers
b. It is more common in
myopes
c. It is common in the inferotemporal
Peripheral
d. It occurs more
commonly along the OP layer
37)
Retinopathy of leukemia includes all the following except:
a. Dilated and tortuous
retinal viens
b. Roth’s spot
c. Retinal haemorrhage
d. Foster fuch spot
38)
Angiod streaks are seen in all except:
a. Paget’s disease
b. Pseudoxanthoma
elasticum
c. Ehler Danlos
syndrome
d. Myopic maculopathy
39)
Retinal detachment with photopsia and floaters are seen in:
a. Rhegmatogenous RD
b. Exudative RD
c. Tractional RD
d. Vitreous haemorrhage
40)
ICG angiography is best indicated for:
a. Classical ARMD
b. Dry ARMD
c. Occult ARMD
d. Wet ARMD
41)
Gyrate atrophy of choroid is characterized by:
a. Hyperornithenaemia
b. Hyperlysenemia
c. Macular degeneration
d. None of above
42)
Sun-burst spots are seen in:
a. DM
b. HT
c. Eale’s ds
d. Sickle- cell anaemia
43)
In ERG ‘a’ wave is due to:
a. Bipolar cells
b. Ganglion cells
c. Roads and cones
d. NFL
44)
Vitreous haemorrhage is a feature of all except:
a. Proliferative DR
b. Background DR
c. CRVO
d. Sickle –cell anaemia
45)
Most common finding in retinopathy in toxaemia of pregnancy is:
a. Arterial spasm
b. Hard exudates
c. Soft exudates
d. Macular star
KEY
OF MCQ’s
|
1
|
C
|
11
|
A
|
21
|
B
|
31
|
C
|
41
|
A
|
|
2
|
D
|
12
|
C
|
22
|
B
|
32
|
B
|
42
|
D
|
|
3
|
A
|
13
|
B
|
23
|
B
|
33
|
B
|
43
|
A
|
|
4
|
A
|
14
|
D
|
24
|
C
|
34
|
A
|
44
|
B
|
|
5
|
D
|
15
|
D
|
25
|
B
|
35
|
B
|
45
|
A
|
|
6
|
D
|
16
|
D
|
26
|
D
|
36
|
B
|
|
|
|
7
|
A
|
17
|
C
|
27
|
A
|
37
|
D
|
|
|
|
8
|
C
|
18
|
A
|
28
|
C
|
38
|
D
|
|
|
|
9
|
B
|
19
|
C
|
29
|
D
|
39
|
A
|
|
|
|
10
|
A
|
20
|
A
|
30
|
B
|
40
|
C
|
|
|
Neuropthalmology:
1) Field defects seen
in pituitary adenomas are:
a.
Homonymous infero-nasal field defect
b.
Homonymous supero-temporal field defect
c.
Homonymous infero-nasal field defects
d.
Homonymous supero-temporal field defects
2) Supranuclear lesions
are characterized by all the following except:
a.
Gaze Palsies
b.
Absence of diplopia
c.
Normal reflex movement
d.
Abnormal retinal correspondence
3) Which of the
following is true regarding cortical blindness?
a.
Direct and consensual reflex absent in both eyes.
b.
Direct and consensual reflex present in both eyes.
c.
Direct reflex present & consensual reflex absent on affected side.
d.
Direct reflex present & consensual reflex absent on normal side.
4) Bitemporal
hemianopia is seen in which condition:
a.
Retinoblastoma
b.
Aneurysm circle of willis
c.
Temporal SOL
d.
Frontal SOL
5) The typical field defect in tobacco amblyopia
is:
a.
Central
b.
Centrocaecal
c.
Segmental
d.
Enlargement of blind spot
6) Retrobulbar neuritis
is characterized by all except:
a.
Afferent papillary defect
b.
Sudden dimunation of vision
c.
Pain on elevation of eye ball
d.
Blurred disc margin
7) Superotemporal
quadrantopia is caused by:
a.
Parietal lobe tumor
b.
Frontal lobe tumor
c.
Temporal lobe tumor
d.
Pituitory tumor
8) Papillitis is
characterized by all of the following except:
a.
Sudden loss of vision
b.
Disc oedema
c.
Hazy media
d.
Normal papillary response
9) Bitemporal
hemianopia occurs in:
a.
Optic nerve glioma
b.
Frontal lobe tumor
c.
Posterior cerebral artery thrombosis
d.
Aneurysm circle of willis
10) Functional defect of
optic nerve can be diagnosed by:
a.
Direct opthalmoscopy
b.
Indirect opthalmoscopy
c.
Perimetry and field charting
d.
Retinoscopy
11) All of the
following are true about papilloedema except:
a.
Blurring of disc margin
b.
Congestion of retinal veins
c.
Soft with exudates around the disc
d.
Suddent loss of vision
12) RE, Superotemporal
quadrantopsia, left eye centrocaecal scotoma withn headache:
a.
Left optic nerve+ chiasma
b.
Left optic tract+ chiasma
c.
Right optic nerve + chiasma
d.
Right optic tract + chiasma
13) Contralateral optic atrophy with papilloedema is seen in
ipsilateral:
a. Fisher syndrome
b.
Foster- Kennedy syndrome
c.
Vogt- Koyanagi –Harada syndrome
14) All of the
following are caused by third palsy except:
a.
Ptosis
b.
Mydriasis
c.
Medial deviation of eyeball
d.
Pupillary reflex lost
15) In unilateral
afferent pupillary defect, when light is moved from narmal to affected eye,
there is:
a.
Dilation on affected side and constriction on normal side
b.
Dilation on normal side and constriction on affected side
c.
Dilation on both pupils
d.
Constriction in both pupils
16) All of the
following can cause optic neuritis except:
a.
Rifampicin
b.
Digoxin
c.
Chloroquine
d.
Ethambutol
17) A 40 years old lady
presents with bilateral papilloedema. CT Scan shows normal ventricles,
diagnosis is:
a.
Being intracranial hypertension
b.
Malignant hypertension
c.
Papillities
d.
Raised intraocular
18) Chalky white optic
disc on fundus examination is seen in all except:
a.
Syphilis
b.
Lebers hereditary optic neuropathy
c.
Post papilloedema optic neuritis
d.
Traumatic injury to the optic nerve
19) Unilatersl
proptosis with bilateral VIth nerve palsy, diagnosis is:
a.
Grave disease
b.
Retinoblastoma
c.
Pseudotumor of orbit
d.
Cavernous sinus thrombosis
20) First sign of optic
nerve disease:
a.
Papilloedema
b.
Colour blindness
c.
Affected pupillary defect
d.
Efferent pupillary defect
21) Wernicke’s
hemianopic pupillary response is seen in lesions at:
a.
Optic tract
b.
Optic chiasma
c.
Optic radiation
d.
Lateral geniculate body
22) A patient with
supreaseller extension of pituitary tumor present with:
a.
Bitemporal hemianopia
b.
Binasal hemianopia
c.
Pie in sky
d.
Right homonymous hemianopia
23) Left-sided lateral
gaze is affected in lesion of:
a.
Right frontal lobe
b.
Right occipital lobe
c. left occipital lobe
d.
Left frontal lobe
24) All are features of
optic nerve disease except:
a.
Afferent papillary defect
b.
Sudden loss of vision
c.
Headache and vomiting
d.
Pain on movement of eyeball
25) All are true
regarding optic neuritis except:
a.
Decreased visual acuity
b.
Decreased papillary response
c.
Abnormal electroretinogram
d.
Abnormal visual evoked response
26) Vitamin B-12 deficiency
is likely to cause:
a.
Bitemporal hemianopia
b.
Binsal hemianopia
c.
Heteronymous hemianopia
d.
Centrocasecal scotoma
27) Fundoscopic
features of papilloedema include all except:
a.
Blurred disc margin
d.
Deep cup
c.
Absent venous pulsations
d.
Bending of blood vessels
28) Miners nystagmus
is:
a.
Vertical
b.
Rotatory
c.
Horizontal
d.
Pendular
29) Internal
opthalmoplegia occurs in:
a.
Diabetes
b.
Syphilis
c.
Diphtheria
d.
All of the above
30) Heteronymous
hemianopia is seen in all except:
a.
Chromophobe adenoma
b.
B/L aneurysm of internal carotid artery
c.
Occipital lobe lesion
d.
Chiasmal lobe
31) Length of
intraorbital optic nerve is:
a.
10 mm
b.
6mm
c.
1 mm.
d.
25mm
32) In webers syndrome,
there is:
a.
4th nerve plasy
b.
3rd nerve plasy
c.
5th nerve plasy
d.
7th nerve plasy
33) A25 years old lady
suddenly develops unilateral loss of vision decreasing from 6/6 to 4/60 with
ill-sustained reaction of the pupil. She complaints of slight headache and some
pain in orbit when looking upward. The most likely diagnosis:
a.
Acute frontal sinusitis
b.
Acute iritis
c.
Brain tumor
d.
Retrobular neuritis
34) Pupillomotor fibres
of third cranial nerve travel along with:
a.
Nerve to medial rectues
b.
Nerve to superior rectues
c.
Nerve to inferior rectues
d.
Nerve to inferior oblique
35) Cerebello-pointine
angle tumor produces following at the earliest:
a.
Diplopia
b.
Loss of corneal reflex
c.
Ipsilateral squint
d.
Ipsilateral tongue paralysis
36) Optic disc in
consequetive opticatrophy is characterized by:
a.
Cupping
b.
Pale color
c.
Pink color
d.
Yellow color
37) In pupillarity
reflex arc, the connction from pretectal
nucleus to EWN is in
which neuron order:
a.
First
b.
Second
c.
Third
d.
Fourth
38) U/L third nerve
palsy with C/LSR palsy and B/L ptosis. Lesion involves:
a.
Cavernous sinus
b.
Peripheral fibres of one nerve and sup erior fibres of C/L nerve
c.
Multiple sites
d.
Third nerve nuclear complex
39) Diplopia with
limitation of adduction of rt eye with abduction saccades of it eye and normal
convergence is due to:
a.
Duane’s retraction syndrome
b.
Partial 3rd nerve palsy
c.Internuclear
opthamoplegia
d.
Absence of medial rectus
40) Features of
Horner’s syndrome caused by pancoast tumor are all the following except:
a.
Miosis
b.
Ptosis
c.
Excessive sweating
d.
Loss of cilliospinal reflex
41) Bielschowsky test
is used in which cranial nerve palsy:
a.
I N
b.
II N
c.
III N
d.
IV N
42) In oculomotor palsy
involved is:
a.
Posterior communicating artery
b.
Middle cerebellar artery
c.
Superior cerebellar artery
d.
Anterior communicating artery
43) Pupillary reflex is
retained in lesion of:
a.
Optic nerve
b.
Oculomotor nerve
c.
Ciliary ganglion
d.
Lateral geniculate
44) Most common adverse
effect on eye in oral contraceptive usage is:
a.
Color blindness
b.
Ring scotoma
c.
Optic neuritis
d.
Nystagmus
45)True about blind
spot is:
a.
It is an absolute scotoma
b. It is negative scotoma
c.
It is relative scotoma
d.
Both a and b
e.
Both b and c
KEY OF MCQ’s
|
1
|
D
|
11
|
D
|
21
|
A
|
31
|
D
|
41
|
D
|
|
2
|
D
|
12
|
A
|
22
|
A
|
32
|
B
|
42
|
A
|
|
3
|
B
|
13
|
B
|
23
|
A
|
33
|
D
|
43
|
D
|
|
4
|
B
|
14
|
C
|
24
|
C
|
34
|
D
|
44
|
C
|
|
5
|
B
|
15
|
C
|
25
|
C
|
35
|
B
|
45
|
D
|
|
6
|
D
|
16
|
A
|
26
|
D
|
36
|
B
|
|
|
|
7
|
C
|
17
|
A
|
27
|
B
|
37
|
C
|
|
|
|
8
|
D
|
18
|
C
|
28
|
B
|
38
|
D
|
|
|
|
9
|
D
|
19
|
D
|
29
|
D
|
39
|
C
|
|
|
|
10
|
C
|
20
|
C
|
30
|
C
|
40
|
C
|
|
|
OPTICS AND SQUINT:
1. Uncrossed diplopia
is seen in-
a.
Esophoria
b.
Exophoria
c.
Esotropia
d.
Exotropia
2. Which of the
following material is best suited for manufacture of gas permeable contact
lenses-
a.
Glass
b.
Methylmethacrylate
c.
Silicon
d.
Rubber
3. Fixation of visual
reflexes is accomplished by-
a.
6mth
b.
1 yr
c.
2yr
d.
3 yr
4.True regarding factor
to focus rays on retina:
a.
Lens
b.
Corneal curvature
c.
Axial
d.
Media length of eyeball
7. The power of eye is:
a.
15D
b.
29D
c.
58D
d.
100D
8. Secondary deviation
is more than primary deviation in:
a.
Spastic squint
b.
Paralytic squint
c.
Concomitant squint
d.
Inconcomitant squint
9. In a 3yrs old child
mydriatic used for refraction:
a.
1 % Atropine drops
b.
1 % atropine ointment
c.
homtropine drops
d.
Tropicamide drops
10. Tt of amblyopia in
a 3yr old child is:
a.
Orthoptic exercises
b.
Occlusion of one eye
c.
Prism
d.
Surgery
11. Tt
of accommodative strabismus is-
a.
Orthoptic exercises
b.
Lens implant
c.
Refractive correction
d.
Prism correction
12. Amblypia should be
corrected by:
a.
<5 yr of age
b.
<5-8 yr age
c.
8-12 yr age
d.
10-15 yr age
13. All are true about paralytic
strabismus except:
a.
Binocular diplopia
b.
False orientation
c.
Primary deviation= Secondary deviation
d.
False projection
14. Fluctuating
refractive errors with cataract are seen in:
a.Morgagnial
cataract
b.
Diabetic cataract
c.
Intumescent cataract
d.
Traumatic cataract
15. Downwards and
lateral gaze is action of:
a.
IO
b.
SO
c.
IR
d.
SR
16. Infant is
physiologically:
a.
Myopic
b.
Hypermetropic
c.
Astigmatic
d.
Emmetropic
17. All are features of
paralytic squint:
a.
Confusion
b.
Deviation
c.
Streopsis
d.
Diplopia
18. Which is not a
clinical feature of right sided VIth nerve palsy-
a.
Convergent squint
b.
Face turn to left
c.
Inability to abduct right eye
d.
Diplopia
19. Action of superior
oblique muscle is:
a.
Intorsion
b.
Extorsion
c.
Depression
d.
Abduction
20. All are features of
macular function test except:
a.
Maddox- rod test
b.
Two point dicrimination test
c.
Electroretinogram test
d.
Laser inferometry
21. Soft contact lens
uses have high tendency to develop-
a.
Recurrent corneal ulcer
b.
Acanth amoeba ulcer
c.
Pseudomonas infection
d.
Pneumococcal infection
22. Inverted purkinfe
image is seen on-
a.
Anterior surface of cornea
b.
Anterior surface of lens
c.
Posterior surface of cornea
d.
Posterior surface of lens
23. MAgnification
caused by direct opthalmoscope is-
a.
5 times
b.
15 times
c.
50 times
d.
10 times
24. A lady using
contact lens developed photophobia, blurred vision and watery discharge was
diagnosed to be suffering from over-wearing syndrome. Most appropriate
management is-
a.
Avoid use of lens for48-72 hrs
b.
Antibiotic and cyloplegic
c.
change the contact lens
d.
Send the lens for culture and sensitivity
25. After maximum
correction, the vision o RE is 6/36 and left eye is 6/6 and with 66 cm
retinoscopy RE is +4.5 D and LE is 1.5 D with normal fundus. Most likely causes
of defect of vision:
a.
Refractive error
b.
Amblyopia
c.
Optic nevritis
d.
Anisometropia
26. A child was taken
to a doctor by his mother complaining that there is decrease in his school
performance, his teacher says that he frequently squeezes his eyes and says
that there is difficulty in seeing the black board. What is most probable
diagnosis?
a.
Myopia
b.
Hypermtropia
c.
Presbypio
d.
Astigmatism
27. Basanti, A20 year
old female presents with complaints of difficulty in reading near print. On
examination there is ptosis and diplopia on looking in all direction. What is
the most probable diagnosis?
a.
Lateral rectus palsy
b.
Oculomotor palsy
c.
Presbyopia
d.
Myasthenia gravis
28. A 16 yrs old boy
complains of pain in right eye after refratometry, he was prescribed a +3.5 D
sphere lens. The cover test is normal. There is no heterphoria. The diagnosis
is:
a.
Organic Amblyopia
b.
Anisometropic Amblyopia
c.
Emmetropic Amblyopia
d.Toxic
Amblyopia
29. A 14 yrs old boy
complains of pain during reading. On examination his both eyes are normal and
vision with snellens reading is 6/5. He still complains of pain on occluding
one eye. The diagnosis is:
a.
Myopia
b.
Pseudomyopia
c.
Hypermtropia
d.
Emmetropia
30. Retinoscopy is done
on a 0.5 D myopic patient at a distance
of 1 metre. Movement of image will be-
a.
Move with the mirror
b.
Move opposite to mirror
c.
No movement of image with the mirror
d.
Image can move on any side
31. A soft contact lens
user has corneal keratitis caused is:
a.
Acanthamoeba ulcer
b.
Erosion of cornea
c.
Pseudomonas infection
d.
Herpes Infection
32. A 35 yrs old
Hypermetrope is using 1.5 D sph both eyes. Whenever his glasses slip downward
on his nose, he will feel that his near vision:
a.
Becomes enlarged
b.
Becomes distorted
c.
Becomes decreased
d.
Becomes the same
33. Eye is deviated laterally
and downwards, patient is unable to look up or medially, likely nerve involved
is:
a.
Trochlear
b.
Trigeminal
c.
Oculomotor
d.
Abducent
34. Defect in Amblyopia
lies in:
a.
Lateral genuculate body
b.
Afferent papillary reflex
c.
Rods and cones
d.
Retina
35. Visual acuity is
test of:
a.
light test
b.
Color test
c.
Contrast
d.
Form sense
36. Yolk muscle in
dexroelevation are:
a.
Right RI and left SO
b.
Right SR and left IO
c.
Right SO and left RI
d.
Right IO and left SR
37. Distant direct opthalmoscopy
is done at a distance of:
a.
15 cm
b.
25 cm
c.
50 cm
d.
1 metre
38. Hirschberg test is
used to detect:
a.
Squint
b.
Visual acuity
c.
Retinal defect
d.
Optic neuritis
39. Physiological tone
of the ciliary muscle is:
a.1D
b.
1.5 D
c.
2D
d.
2.5D
40.Most common type of
color blindness is:
a.
Protanopes
b.
Deutanopes
c.
Tritanopes
d.
None
41.Which of the
following combination is false:
a.
SR and SO are intorters
b.
Sr and IR are adductors
c.
SR and SO are abductors
d.
IR and IO are extorters
42.Eye achieves adult
size by:
a.
1 Year
b.
2 Year
c.
3 Year
d.
4 Year
41)
Which of the following combination is false:
a)
Sr and So are intorters
b)
SR and Ir are adductors
c)
SR and So are adbuctors
d)
IR and IO are extorters
42)
Eye achieves adult suize by:
a)
1 year
b)
2 year
c)
3 year
d)
4 year
43) In a mixed type of
accommodative esotropia,
a)
Child has normal AC\A but high refractive error
b)
Child has abnormal AC\A ratio and normal refraction
c)
Child has both increased AC\A and increased refraction for age
d)
None of the above
44) Moddox wing is used
for:
a)
Measuring the amount of heterotropia\
b)
Measuring the amount of heterophoria
c)
Measuring the amount of hypertropia
d)
Measuring the amount of hyperphoria
45) Which of the
following is not a cycloplegic
a)
Phenylephrine
b)nAtropine
c)
Homatropine
d)
Cyclopentolate
46)Secondary deaviation
flows:
a)
Donders law
b)
Listing law
c)
Hering law
d)
Sherrington’s law
47) If the length of
the eyeball decreases by 1mm, power will change by:
a)
1D
b)
2D
c)
3D
d)
4D
48) Pseaudoexotropia is
a feature of:
a)
Myopia
b)
Hypermetropia
c)
Astigmatism
d)
Anisometropia
49) Which of the
muscies does not arise from the apex of the orbit:
a)
SO
b)
IO
c)
IR
d)
SR
50) Which instrument is
based on the principle of first purking fibres:
a)
Retinoscope
b)
Slit lamp
c)
Homatropine
d)
Cyclopentolate
51) Most rapidly acting
cycloplegicis:
a)
Atropine
b)
Tropicamide
c)
Homatropine
d)
Cyclopentolate
52) Maddox rod is:
a)
Series of fused cylindrical glasses
b)
Series of fused prisms of increasing length
c)
Series of alternating sphericreasing length
d)
Series of alternating spherical and cylindrical glasses
53) An aphakic will see
an increase in image size of:
a)
5%
b)
10%
c)
20%
d)
30%
54) A patiest has
spectacle correction of -6D and -8D . He has started seening some opacities floating in front of his eye
and that his vision is decreased in the last few days. What is the best investingation:
a)
Retinoscopy
b)
Refraction
c)
Indirect ophthalmopy
d)
Distant direct ophthalmoscopy
55)
Retinoscopy is done at a distance of:
a)
50cm
b)55cm
c)60cm
d)66cm
56)
Soft contact leads to all the following except:
a)
Acanthamoeba
b)
Corneal vascularisation
c)
Papillae formation
d)
Folliculosis
57)Sudden
increase in blood surge in diabetes causes:
a)
Myopia
b)
Anisometropia
c)
Presbyopia
c)
Anisometropia
d)
Astigmatism
58)
If retinoscopy is done at 1m distance the correction factor used while
prescribing the glasses is -1D with retinoscopy performes at a distance of
50cm, the correction factor will be:
a)
-2D
b)
-1D
c)
-2.5D
d)
+1D
59) When an aphakic eye
is corrected with multifocal IOL What will happen:
a)Distant
vision obtained
b)
Both distant and bear vision are corrected
c)
Distant vision and near field of filed of vision are corrected
d)
All of the above
60) Pincushion
distortion with aphakic glasses is due to:
a)
Periphery of the lens magnifying more than the centre of the lens
b)
Center of the lens magnifying more than the periphery of the lens
c)
Thickness of the lens
d)
Size of the lens
KEY OF MCQ”s
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1
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11
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21
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31
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41
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51
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2
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12
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22
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32
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42
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52
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|
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3
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13
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23
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33
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43
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53
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|
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4
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|
14
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|
24
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34
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|
44
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|
54
|
|
|
5
|
|
15
|
|
25
|
|
35
|
|
45
|
|
55
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|
|
6
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|
16
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|
26
|
|
36
|
|
46
|
|
56
|
|
|
7
|
|
17
|
|
27
|
|
37
|
|
47
|
|
57
|
|
|
8
|
|
18
|
|
28
|
|
38
|
|
48
|
|
58
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|
|
9
|
|
19
|
|
29
|
|
39
|
|
49
|
|
59
|
|
|
10
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|
20
|
|
30
|
|
40
|
|
50
|
|
60
|
|
