AIIMS November 2012

AIIMS November 2012

1. Which of the following is true about testis?

A. Ectodermal in origin

B. Gubernaculum is attached to the

caudal end of testis

C. Surrounded by peritoneal tunica

albuginea

D. Reach scrotum at 28th weeks of

gestation

2. Which nerve does not supply gluteal

region?

A. Sciatic nervez

B. Superrior gluteal nerve

C. Inferior gluteal nerve

D. Nerve to obturator internus

3 a. Nerve damaged in case of numbness of little

and ring finger, atrophy of hypothenar muscels:

A. Palmar cutaneous branch of ulnar

B. Deep branch of ulnar

C. Ulnar nerve before division into

superficial and deep branches

D. Posterior cord of branchial plexus

3 b. Loss of extension of little ring finger,

hypothenar atrophy is seen in injury of:

A. Post interosseous nerve

B. Radial trunk

C. Ulnar Nerve

D. Median nerve

4.Root value of long thoracic nerve

A. C-3,4,5

B. C-5,6,7

C. C- 7,8,T-1

D. C-2,3,4

5. Ciliary muscles develop from

A. Surface ectoderm

B. Neural crest cell

C. Mesoderm

D. Neuroectoderm

6. Which of the following structure in the spermatic

cord is not damaged during vasectomy:

A. Testicular artery

B. Ilioinguinal nerve

C. Autonomic nerves

D. Pampiniform plexus

7. Sternocleidomastoid is supplied by all of the

following artery except:

A. Occipital

B. Superior auricular Artery

C. Posterior auricular Artery

D. Thyrocervical trunk

8. All of the following organs develop in the

mesentery of stomach except:

A. Liver

B. Spleen

C. Kidney

D. Pancreas

9. Number of vertebrae is usually constant in:

A. Cervical

B. Thoracic

C. Lumbar

D. Sacral

10. The ligaments connecting the menisci to the tibia

are known as:

A. Coronary

B. Arcuate

C. Transverse

D. oblique

11. A person was taking something over bookshelf

falls on his arm laterally, after which he is not able to

extend his wrist, unable to make a strong hand grip

and there is long of sensation on dorsum of hand

and fingers. Which of the following structure is

involved?

A. Branhial plexus

B. C7 radiculopathy

C. Posterior cord injury

D. Radial nerve injury

12. Apiglottis develops from which of the following

structre?

A. 2nd pharyngeal arch

B. 3rd pharyngeal arch

C. 4th pharyngeal arch

D. 6th pharyngeal arch

13. All are true regarding blood supply increase in

muscle during exercise except:

A. Local Metabolite

B. Sympathetic stimulation

C. Cholinergic stimulation

D. Inhibition of beta receptor

14. End diastolic volume increases in:

A. Decrease in total blood volume

B. Increase in intrapericarfial pressure

C. Increase in negative intrathoracic pressure

D. Decrease in ventricular compluiance

15. Right axis deviation is seen in:

A. Lying down position

B. Thin and tall

C. Obese person

D. At the end of peak expiration

16a. Clamping of the carotid arteries below

(proximal) the carotid sinus is likely to produce:

A. Increase in vasomotor centre activity

B. Increase in discharge of carotid sinus sfferent

nerves

C. Decreased heart rate and blood pressure

D. Baroreceptor adaptation

16b. Clamping of the carotid arteries below

(proximal) the carotid sinus is likely to produce:

A. Increase in blood pressure and increase in

heart rate

B. Decrease in blood pressure and decrease in

heart rate

C. Increase in blood pressure and decrease in

heart rate

D. Decrease in blood pressure and increase in

heart rate

17a. Self stimulation is experimentally done from

which part of brain?

A. Medial forebrain bundle

B. Area around aqueduct of sylvius

C. PV region of hypothalamus

D. Radial radiotherapy

17b. Stimulation of which of the following areas of

brain is experimentally used to control intractable

pain:

A. Periaquaeductal grey matter

B. Mesencephalon

C. Subthalamic nucleus

D. Medial forebrain bundle

18. A politician is shot in the back during a rally at

level of TB vertebral immediately after the shot he

loses all the sensation below level of lesion. Chance

of regeneration of spinal cord due to the fact that

injured nerve is not able to regeneration is due to

reason all except:

A. Lack of the endoneural tubes

B. Lack of growth factors

C. Presence Of glial scar

D. lack of myelin inhibiting substance

19. Which of the following is true?

A. Dopamine increase the hepatic and mesenteric

blood flow at high dose

B. Dobutamine decreases peripheral vascular

resistance

C. Nor-adrenaline increases the renal blood flow

D. Adrenaline causes selective renal vasodilation

20. Which of the following is not a second

messenger?

A. c-AMP

B. IP3

C. Guanylyl cyclase

D. Diacylglycerol (DAG)

21. Which of the following is seen in association with

membrane raft?

A. Mannose binding protein

B. GTP associated receptor

C. GPI anchored protein

D. G-coupled receptor

22. Hepatic enzyme undergoes phosphorylation

from dephosphorylated state. Which of the

following is true?

A. Affected by level of Catecholamines

B. Occurs in starvation rather than well fed state

C. Always activated by c-AMP dependent protein

kinase

D. Always activates the enzyme

23. Which of the following is not true regarding the

principle of using nanotechnology for its use in the

medical science?

A. Spectrum of the frequency between absorption

and emission is narrow

B. Produce long lasting fluorescence

C. Has narrow spectrum of emission frequency

D. Not recalled

24. Which of the following is not a cause of point

mutation?

A. Paracentric inversion

B. Deletion

C. Substitution

D. Insertion

25. A child develop skin tumor with blisters on

exposure to sunlight. Irregular dark spots on the skin

were also found. He is very likely has defect in which

of the following mechanism?

A. Thymidine dimmers repair

B. Base excision repair

C. Mismatch repair

D. Double strand break repair

26. True about RIBOZYME:

A. Peptidyl transferase activity

B. Cut DNA at specific site

C. Participate in DNA synthesis

D. GTPase activity

27. Test to differentiate the chromosome of normal

& cancer cells:

A. PCR

B. Comparative genomic hybridization

C. Karyotyping

D. Western Blotting

28. Enzymes found in CSF:

A. GGT + ALP

B. ALP + CK-MB

C. CK + LDH

D. Deaminase and Peroxidase

29. Hyperacute rejection is due to:

A. Preformed antibodies

B. Cytotoxic T-lymphocyte mediated injury

C. Circulating macrophage mediated injury

D. Endothelitis caused by donor antibodies

30. Flow cytometry is done on:

A. Polycythemia

B. Thrombocytosis

C. Basophil

D. Lymphocytes

31. Which of the following does not indicate

megaloblastic anemia?

A. Increased reticulocyte count

B. Raised Bilirubin

C. Mild splenomegaly

D. Nucleated RBC.

32. Myelofibrosis leading to a dry tap on bone

marrow aspiration is seen with which of the

following condition?

A. Burkitt’s lymphoma

B. Acute erythroleukemia

C. Acute megakaryocytic leukemia

D. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia

33. Receptor on neuronal membrane that induces

development of glioma:

A. CD-117

B. CD-133

C. CD-33

D. CD-45

34. CD 95 is a marker of:

A. Intrinsic pathway of apoptosis

B. Extrinsic pathway of apoptosis

C. Monocyte

D. Leucocyte

35. Lymphoma Marker is:

A. S-100

B. HMB-45

C. Leukocyte common antigen

D. Cytokeratin

36. A patient of more then 70 years, presented with

generalized lymphadenopathy. WBC count was

20,000/mm3 and blood film showed >70% mature

looking

Lymphocytes. Next investigation that should be

done :

A. LN biopsy

B. Peripheral Immunophenotyping

C. Bone merrow aspiration

D. Peripheral blood cytogenetics

37. Most common fixative used in electron

microscopy:

A. Glutaraldehyde

B. Formalin

C. Picric Acid

D. Absolute alcohol

38. In a specimen of kidney, fibrinoid necrosis is

seen and onion peel appearance is also present.

Most probable pathology is:

A. Hyaline degeration

B. Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis

C. Glomerulosclerosis

D. Fibrilliary glomerulonephritis

39. Staining done for sebaceous cell carcinoma:

A. Oil Red O

B. PAS

C. Methamine silver

D. KOH

40. Mutation in COL4A5 chain the diagnosis:

A. Alport’s syndrome

B. Good pasture’s syndrome

C. Hereditary Non-polyposis Colon Cancer

D. Xeroderma Pigmentosum

41. Person having heterozygous sickle cell trait is

protected from infection of:

A. P. falciparum

B. P. vivax

C. Pneumococcus

D. Salmonella

42. Which of the following is an ocular sideeffect

of HAART therapy?

A. Retinitis

B. Uveitis

C. Optic neuritis

D. Scleritis

43. Rho kinase inhibitor:

A. Fasudil

B. Ranolazine

C. Amiloride

D. Nicorandil

44. Best agent for premenstrual syndrome

management:

A. Progesterone

B. Anxiolytics

C. SSRI

D. Vitamin E

45. Which of the following is not a 2nd

generation antihistamine?

A. Cetrizine

B. Cyclizine

C. Loratidine

D. Fexofenadine

46. Treatment of choice for extended spectrum

betalactamase producing enterococci:

A. Ampxicillin – clavalunic acid

B. Piperacillin-Tazobactam

C. Ampicillin only

D. Ampicillin + Sulbactam

47. In new drug designing, problem arises in:

A. Decreasing interaction of drug with target

proteins

B. Increasing drug nteraction with non-target

proteins

C. Decreasing potency of drugs

D. Increased binding with target protein

48. Unfavorable interaction of drug and

substrate in human beings are all except:

A. Omeprazole reduces stomach acid secretion

B. Methotrexate inhibiting folate

C. Barbiturates decreases B12 absorption

D. Retinoic acid inhibits vitamin E

49. A patient with glaucoma is being treated

with systemic beta blocker. All of the following

can be given to the patient except?

A. Brimonidine

B. Dorzolamide

C. Levobunolol

D. Prostaglandin

50. Which of the following agent is not used in

erectile dysfunction?

A. PGE2

B. Vardenafil

C. Phenylephrine

D. Alprostadil

51. True about Penicillin G:

A. It can be given orally

B. It is has broad spectrum activity

C. Used for treatment rat bite fever

D. Probenecid given along with PnG decrease its

direction of action

52. Cholinomimetic is not used for:

A. Open angle glaucoma

B. Bradycardia

C. Cobra bite

D. Myasthenia gravis

53. The endotoxin of the following gram

negative bacteria doesn’t play any part in the

pathogenesis of the natural disease?

A. E. coli

B. Klebsiella

C. Vibrio cholera

D. Pseudomonas

54. Aerosol spread leading to epidemics is seen

in infection with:

A. Legionella

B. Hemophilus

C. Influenza

D. Mycoplasma

55. Which of the following features is not shared

between ‘T cells’ and ‘B cells’?

A. Positive selection during development

B. Class I MHC Expression

C. Antigen Specific Receptors

D. All of the above

56. With reference to Bacteroides fragilis, all of

the following statements are true except:

A. B. Fragilis is the most frequent anaerobe

isolated from clinical samples

B. B. Fragilis is not uniformly sensitive to

Metronidazole

C. Lipopopolysaccharide formed by B. fragilis is

structurally and functionally different from the

conventional Endotoxin

D. Shock and DIC are common in Bacteroides

bacteremia

57. A formal from the sub-Himalayan region

presents with multiple leg ulcers. The most likely

causative agent is:

A. Trichophyton

B. Cladosporium

C. Sporothrix schenkii

D. Aspergillus

58. Farmer presents with the features of high

fever, painful inguinal lymphadenopathy,

vomiting and diarrhea and hypotension. Which

stain will help in the diagnosis?

A. Nesser stain

B. Wayson’s stain

C. Albert’s stain

D. McFadyean’s stain

59. An abattoir worker presented with a

malignant pustule on his hand that progressed

to form an ulcer. Smear was taken from the

ulcer and sent to laboratory for investigation.

The diagnosis is:

A. Cutaneous anthrax

B. Carbuncle

C. Ulcerating melanoma

D. Infected rodent ulcer

60. Which of following is correct about Prions?

A. Long incubation period

B. Destroyed by autoclaving at 121° C

C. Nucleic acid present

D. Immunogenic

61. In the forensic laboratory some samples are

being examined under ultraviolet ray, the doctor

notices blue white colour of the sample. Which

is the most probable content of the samle?

A. Semen

B. Urine

C. Pus

D. Leucorrhoea discharge

62. A young man with known history of heroine

addiction is brought in the emergency in

unconscious state by his friends. On

examination his pupil are pin point. What will be

the treatment of choice?

A. Oral naltrexone

B. IV naloxone

C. Oral diazepam

D. Oral buprenorphine

63. A woman assaulted by neighbor was brought

to you in the emergency department with

fracture of middle tooth. Injury was extended

medially to the mouth and there was also

contusion to bilateral leg. What is the nature of

thi injury?

A. Grievous injury

B. Simple injury

C. Dangerous injury

D. Assault

64. A police officer brings the aborted product

of conception of size 2 cm and weight 10 gm.

For all forensic purposes what will be the age of

the fetus?

A. 2 weeks

B. 4 weeks

C. 6 weeks

D. 8 weeks

65. A person keeps a man under his power and

threatens him to assault or cause harm without

any intension to kill comes under?

A. Section 44

B. Section 351

C. Section 319

D. Section 320

66. Choking is seen in?

A. Revolver

B. Shopping rifle

C. Shotgun

D. Pistol

67. Double based smokeless gun powder

consists of:

A. Nitrocellulose plus nitroglycerine

B. Introcellulose plus sulphur

C. Potassium nitrate plus nitroglycerine

D. Potassium nitrate plus charcoal

68. True about OPV all except:

A. We get immune response

B. It is a live vaccine

C. It is used in epidemic

D. maternal antibody interferes with immune

response

69. If the prevalence is very low as compared to

the incidence for a disease. It implies:

A. Disease is very fatal and / or easily curable

B. Disease is non fatal

C. calculation of prevalence and incidence is

wrong

D. Nothing can be said as they are independent

70. For Randomized Control Trial (RCT) to assess

dating in adolescent, a study was done by

selecting random sections and then random

students. This is an example of:

A. Stratified sampling

B. Simple random sampling

C. Cluster sampling

D. Multistage sampling

71. The pattern of change of disease trends of

mortality and morbidity where the pandemics

infection are replaced by degenerative and manmade

disorders, the main cause of morbidity

and the most frequent cause of fatality is known

as:

A. Cross transition

B. paradoxical transition

C. Epidemiological transition

D. Demographic transition

72. Mass chemoprophylaxis is not given for one

of the following:

A. Lymphatic filariasis

B. Plague

C. Vitamin A deficiency

D. Scabies

73. District population 10 lac, with under – 16

are 30%, prevalence of blindness is 0.8 / 1000 of

under – 16 population. Calculate the no. of blind

under – 16:

A. 240

B. 2400

C. 24000

D. 240000

74. All of the following are true regarding

tetanus except:

A. It is transmitted from person to person

B. Herd immunity is not of much value

C. The main reservoir is soil and intestine of

animals and human

D. Incubation period is 6 – 10 days

75. Current percent of Indian GDP spent on

health

A. 1.2

B. 2

C. 10

D. 15

76. Which of the following is the most common

cause of neonatal mortality in India?

A. Prematurity

B. Neonatal infection

C. Diarrheal disease

D. Congenital anomalies

77. In a population of 5000 people, 500 are

already myopic on January 1, 2011, number of

new myopic cases till December 31, 2011 is 9.

Calculate incidence:

A. 1.8 %

B. 2%

C. 5%

D. 20%

78. New cancer patients in India reported

annually:

A. 05. Million

B. 1 million

C. 5 million

D. 10 million

79. In a certain population, there were 4050

births in the last one year. There were 50 still

births, 50 infants died within 7 days. What is the

neonatal mortality rate?

A. 50

B. 62.5

C. 12.5

D. 49.4

80. Which is true about MDG?

A. Reduce by 2/3rd the under five mortality by

year 1990 – 2012

B. Half the prevalence of HIV – AIDS by 2015

C. Reduce maternal mortality by 50% by 1990 –

2012

D. Reduce hunger and poverty by half

81. Screening age for trachoma is:

A. Below 5 school child only

B. 1 – 9 Years

C. 9 – 14 Years

D. 5 – 15 Years

82. True about NPCDCS is all except:

A. Separate centre for stroke, DM

B. Implementation in some 5 states over 10

district

C. CHC has facilities for diagnosis and treatment

of CVD, Diabetes

D. Day care facilities are available at subcentre

83. Rashtriya Swasthya Yojana:

A. Applies to BPL only

B. 30,000 per family member

C. 75% premium borne by family

D. Implemented all over India

84. HIV sentinel surveillance used to calculate:

A. Detection of high risk group

B. Prevalence

C. Monitoring disease trend

D. Detection of incidence

85. In a population of 200 people with normal

distribution. How many people would be

included in 1 SD?

A. 136

B. 140

C. 150

D. 190

86. All of the following are true about Roll back

malaria except:

A. Insecticide treated bed nets

B. Strengthening health system

C. Develop new insecticide

D. Training health workers

87. Highest mean and lowest mode indicates:

A. Positive skewing

B. Negative skewing

C. Normal

D. Symmetrical

88. Disability certificate for poor vision if 4/60, is

impairment percentage of:

A. 100

B. 75

C. 40

D. 30

89. A patient with Hepatitis C, exhibits hypocomplimentemia

with 2gm / day proteinuria and

hematuria. The most probable diagnosis is:

A. MPGN

B. Cryoglobulinemia

C. Membranous glomerulopathy

D. Post-infectious glomerulonephritis

90. All are indicated in a patient with cystinuria

with multiple renal stones except:

A. Cysteamine

B. Increase fluid intake

C. Alkalinization of urine

D. Penicillamine

91. All of the following are true regarding

Raynaud’s phenomenon except:

A. It involves acral parts of fingers

B. migratory thrombophlebitis is seen only in

Raynaud’s phenomenon

C. Drugs acting by inhibiting the beta receptors

in blood vessels also play a role

D. Emotional stress may also precipitate

Raynaud’s phenomenon

92. A patient on amphotericin B develops

hypokalemia of 2.3 mwq / 1. K+

supplementation required:

A. 40 mEq over 24 hours

B. 60 mEq over 24 hours

C. 80 mEq over 24 hours

D. 120-160 mEq over 24 hours

93. A patient with 8 cm x 8 cm abscess in right

lobe of liver was treated with aspiration multiple

times (3 times) and with system amebicide. Now

cavity is remaning in right lobe of liver but there

is nothing in the cavity. Seven days course of

luminal amebicides is given. How will you follow

up?

A. Stool examination only

B. USG weekly for 1 month followed by monthly

USG till 1 year

C. USG weekly for 3 months followed by CT scan

at 3 months

D. USG or CT scan monthly and stool

examination weekly

94. Which of the following is not true about

polymyositis?

A. limb girdle weakness

B. Ophthalmoplegia

C. Para-neoplastic syndrome

D. Spontaneous discharge in EMG

95. Which of the following advises is not given

to a 35 years old female patient with recurrent

renal stone?

A. Increase water

B. restrict protein

C. restrict salt

D. Restrict calcium intake

96. A 28 years old man has anterior lenticonus

and ESRO now. His misternal uncle also died of

similar illness. Diagnosis is:

A. ARPKD

B. ADPKD

C. Oxalosis

D. Alport’s syndrome

97. Pinna calcification is seen in all except:

A. Gaut

B. Ochronosis

C. Frost bite

D. Addison’s disease

98. Which of the following does not need

treatment?

A. Neuroblastoma

B. Burkitt’s lymphoma

C. T cell lumphoblastic leukemia

D. AML

99. With ageing, a slight decrease in cognitive

impairment is seen due to increase in level of:

A. Homocysteine

B. taurine

C. Methionine

D. Cysteine

100. A patient presents with pain in Meta-Tarso-

Phalangeal joints and is a known case of chronic

renal failure. This is due to accumulation of:

A. Rh factor

B. uric acid

C. Serum urea

D. HLA B27 typing

101. SARS causative agent:

A. Corona-virus

B. Picorna-virus

C. Myxovirus

D. Retrovirus

102. Blink reflex is used for:

A. Mid pontine lesions

B. Neuromuscular transmission

C. Axonal neuropathy

D. Motor neuron disease

103. Grisel syndrome all are true except:

A. Post-adenoidectomy

B. Conservation treatment

C. Inflammation of cervical spine ligaments

D. No need for neurosurgeon

104. All of the following are seen in cervical

syringomyelia except:

A. Burning sensation in hands

B. Hypertrophy of abductor pollicis brevis

C. Plantar extensor

D. Absent biceps reflex

105. Which of the following is a feature of

temporal arteritis?

A. Giant cell arteritis

B. Granulomatous vasculitis

C. Necrotizing vasculitis

D. Leucocytoclastic vasculitis

106. A 70 years old retired military person with

good previous medical record complains of bitemporal

headache which is decreased in lying

down position. He states that he gets relief by

giving pressure over bilateral temples. The

patient also complains of loss of appetite with

feeling feverish. Diagnosis is:

A. Chronic tension headache

B. Temporal arteritis

C. Migrane

D. Fibromyalgia

107. A patient of rheumatoid arthritis develops

sudden onset quadriparesis, Babinsky sign

was positive, increased muscle tone of

limbs with exaggerated tendon jerks and

worsening of gait with no sensory, sphincter

involvement. Best initial investigation is:

A. X-ray of cervical area of neck in flexion and

extension

B. MRI brain

C. EMG brain

D. Carotid angipgraphy

108. In a patient with implanted cardiac

pacemaker (defibrillator), which of the

following investigation is useful to know the

position of the misplaced implant?

A. X-ray

B. CT scan

C. MRI

D. USG

109. All are true about 1 renal tubular acidosis

except:

A. Renal stones

B. Hypokalemia

C. Sodium bicarbonate requirement > 4mg / day

D. urine pH > 5.5

110. An elderly female presents with the nasal

blockade and nasal discharge with black

debris. Blood sugar was raised and urine is

positive for the patient would be:

A. Amphotericin B

B. Itraconazole

C. Ketoconazole

D. Broad spectrum antibiotics

111. Gait apraxia is seen in thromboembolic

episode involving:

A. ACA

B. MCA

C. PCA

D. Posterior choroidal artery

112. A 12 months old girl of Punjabi parents

developed pallor since 3 months of age.

One unit of blood transfusion was done at 5

months of age. Now presents with pallor,

on examination hepatosplenomegaly.

Hemoglobin was 3.8gm / dl, MCV = 19.

Peripheral smear showed schistocytes.

Bone marrow examination show erythroid

hyperplasia. Diagnosis is:

A. Sickle cell anemia

B. Alpha-thalassemia

C. Beta-thalassemia (major)

D. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

113. A patient with Tubercular meningitis was

taking ATT regulary. At end of 1 month of

regular intake of drugs deterioration in

sensorium is noted in condition of the

patient. Which of the following

investigations is not required on emergency

evaluation?

A. MRI

B. NCCT

C. CSF examination

D. Liver function test

114. Which of the following is true about Wilson

disease?

A. High copper in urine, high copper in serum

B. High ceruloplasmin

C. Low serum copper

D. Low urinary copper

115. All of the following are true about hernia

surgery except

A. Surgery should not be done unless patient

becomes symptomatic

B. Hernia in children is treated with herniotomy

C. Absorbable mesh should not be used for

surgery

D. Surgery can be done using laparoscopy

116. Patient present with varicose vein with

sapheno-femoral incompetence and normal

perforator. Management options include all

of the following except:

A. Endovascular stripping

B. Sclerotherapy

C. Sapheno-femoral flush ligation

D. Saphenofemoral flush ligation with striping

117. Not a cause of acute anal pain

A. Thrombosed hemorrhoids

B. Acute anal fissure

C. Fistula in ano

D. Perianal abscess

118. A 70 years old man with prostate cancer

was given radiotherapy. The recurrence of

the cancer is monitored biochemically by:

A. Androgene only

B. Prostate specific antigen and

carcinoembryonic antigen

C. Prostate specific antigen only

D. ALP and CEA

119. A patient has a surgical cause of obstructive

jaundice. USG can tell all of the following

except:

A. Biliary trees obstruction

B. Peritoneal deposits

C. Gall bladder stone

D. Ascites

120a. Organism associated with fish

consumption that also cause carcinoma

gallbladder:

A. Clonorchis sinensis

B. Gnathostoma

C. Strongyloides cantonensis

D. H. dimunata

120b. A patient presents to you with the features or

billary obstruction. He gives history of the

consumption of fish while on the trip. Which of the

following is most probable etiology?

A. Clonorchis sinensis

B. Ancylostoma

C. Strongyloides

D. Anterior abdominal wall

121. With the knowledge of anatomy of the pelvis

and perineum, which of the following is true

regarding collection of urine in urethral above deep

perineal pouch?

A. Medial aspect of thigh

B. Scrotum

C. True pelvis only

D. Anterior abdominal wall

122. A child was operated for small intestine mass

with intussusceptions and after the operation the

tumor was diagnosed in histologial section. Which is

the most likely tumor associated?

A. Carcinoid

B. Villous adenoma

C. Lymphoma

D. Smooth muscle tumor

123. All are about radiological features of the

intestinal obstruction except

A. Absence of air fluid level in straight X-ray rules out

any obstruction

B. Volvulus and mesenteric ischemia has a specific

feature

C. Small intestine dilatation >3 cm

D. Distal large intestine >9 cm and proximal intestine

>5 cm

124. Which of the following is true about Buerger’s

disease?

A. Antherosclerotic

B. Neural involvement present

C. Ulnar artery and peroneal arteries involved

D. Only arteriole is involved

125. A lady 35 years old lactating mother presented

with a painful breast lump. Most appropriate initial

investigation should be:

A. Mammography

B. USG

C. MRI

D. X- ray

126. A middle aged patients presents with the

complained of right hypochondrial pain. On Xray,

elevated right hemidaphragm was seen. All of

the following are the possible diagnoses except?

A. Subphrenic abscess

B. Acute cholecystis

C. Pyogenic liver abscess

D. Amoebic liver abscess in right lobe

127a. Treatment of carcinoma Cervix stage IIIB

include:

A. Wertheim’s hysterectomy

B. Schuata’s hysterectomy

C. Chemotherapy

D. Concurrent chemoradiation

127b. Treatment of carcinoma cervix stage IIIB

include:

A. Concurrent of chemoradiation

B. Surgery

C. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by

radiotherapy

D. Only radiotherapy

128a. A female presents with 8 weeks amenorrhea

with pain left lower abdomen. On USG, there was

thick endometrium with mass in lateral adnexa.

Most probable diagnosis:

A. Ectopic pregnancy

B. Torsion of dermoid cyst

C. Tubo-ovarian mass

D. Hydrosalpinx

128b. A young female with 2 month amenorrhea

presents with sudden abdominal pain with adnexal

mass, urine pregnancy test is positive. Most likely

diagnosis:

A. Ovarian

B. Ectopic pregnancy

C. Pelvic tumor

D. Ovarian cyst

129. In a study it is observed that the right ovary

ovulates more than the left, all are possible

explanation for the cause except:

A. Anatomical difference between right and left side

B. Difference in blood supply to both sides

C. Right handedness is more common in population

D. Some embryological basis

130. A young lady presents to your office with

complain of copious vaginal discharge, but there is

no cervical discharge on per speculum examination.

Which of the following should be given for the

management?

A. Metronidazole and fluconazole

B. Metronidazole and azithromycin

C. Metronidazole and doxycycline

D. Fluconazole only

131. Which of the following is least seen in uterine

fibroid?

A. Hyaline degeneration

B. Sarcomatous change

C. Red degeneration

D. fatty degeneration

132. Which of the following is seen in pregnancy

heart disease which is not seen in normal

pregnancy?

A. Distended neck veins

B. Exertional dyspnea

C. Pedal edema

D. Supine hypotension

133. A 24 years gravid female at 36 weeks gestation

comes with visual disturbance, headache and

elevated BP of 180 / 110 mm HG and 176 / 104 mm

Hg in two readings taken 20 minuts apart. Which is

the best management?

A. Start antihypertensive, magnesium sulphate and

terminate pregnancy

B. Admit, start antihypertensive and allow to

continue the pregnancy to the term

C. Give antihypertensive and treat in OPD basis

D. Only admit & watch the patient

134a. Test not useful in case of tubal pregnancy:

A. Pelvic examination

B. USG

C. HCG levels

D. Hysterosalpingography

134b. Which of the following is not helpful in

diagnosis of tubal mass in ectopic pregnancy?

A. Beta-HCG estimation

B. Hysterosalpingography

C. Transvaginal ultrasound

D. Pelvic examination

135. A 19 years old patient came to the out patient

department with complaints of primary amenorrhea.

She had well absence of vagina and uterus but

normal ovaries. Likely diagnosis is:

A. XYY

B. Mullerian agenesis

C. Gonadal dysgenesis

D. Klinefelter’s syndrome

136. A 36 years old multigravida at 34 weeks, with

previous 2 normal vaginal delivery now presented

with unstable lie. The most likely diagnosis in this

case is:

A. Oligohydramnios

B. Placenta previa

C. pelvic tumor

D. Uterine anomalies

137a. A lady withprevious cesarean section presents

in labour. Trial of normal vaginal delivery is

contraindicated in:

A. Breech presentation

B. Fact of knowing that previous cesarean

section was due to CPD

C. Previous classical cesarean section

D. D. No previous vaginal delivery

137b. Trial of normal labour is contrainendicated in:

A. History of previous classical caesarean

section

B. History of previous caesarean section due

to CPD

C. No history of prior vaginal delivery

D. History of previous caesarean section due

to malpresentation

138. A young female presents with cyclical pain,

dysmenorrheal and complain of infertility. Which of

the following would be investigation of choice in

her?

A. TVS

B. Diagnostic laparoscopy

C. Aspirate from pouch of Douglas

D. Hormonal Assessment

139. Shock index (HR / SBP) can be used to know the

severity of the bleeding in cases of hemorrhage.

Which of the following is most indicative for

significant PPH?

A. 0.3 – 0.5

B. 0.5 – 0.7

C. 0.7 – 0.9

D. 0.9 – 1.1

140. Forceps is preferred over vacuum for the

delivery because of the following reasons except?

A. Vacuum requires more clinical skills than forceps

B. Vacuum is preferred more than forceps in HIV

patient

C. Forceps is more commonly associated with fetal

facial injury

D. Vacuum has more chance of formation of

cephalhematoma

141. A neurosurgeon dropped his kid to the school

then there he saw a child with uncontrollable

laughing and precocious puberty. When he again

went to the school in capital parents teachers

meeting, he talked to the father of that boy and

advised him to get an MRI done and the diagnosis

was confirmed. What is the most probable

diagnosis?

A. Hypothalemic hamartoma

B. Pineal germinoma

C. Pituitary adenoma

D. Craniopharygioma

142. A child presented to the casualty with seizures.

On examination an oval hypo-pigmented macules

were noted diagnosis of the child is:

A. Neurofibromatosis

B. Sturge Weber

C. Tuberous sclerosis

D. Incontinenta pigmenti

143. A child is able to dress herself, knows her

gender, feeds without spilling. What is her age?

A. 2 years

B. 3 years

C. 4 years

D. 5 years

144. A pre-term 32 weeks new-born baby with

respiratory rate of 86 / min with presence of

grunting. On examination there was no nasal flaring,

abdomen behind in movement than chest, minimal

intercostals retraction and no xiphisternal retraction.

The silverman scoring for the neonate shall be:

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

145. A 2 years old child with rickets in on calcium

supplemens and has a foot deformity. When shoul a

decision to undertake corrective surgery be

undertaken?

A. When vitamin D levels turn to normal

B. When growth plate healing is seen radiographically

C. When bone specific alkaline phosphatase is

normal

D. When serum calcium becomes normal

146. Which of the following in the natural course of

disease has no reversal of the shunt?

A. ASD

B. VSD

C. TOF

D. PDA

147. A preterm infant with poor respiration at birth

starts throwing seizures at 10 hours after birth. Antiepileptic

of choice shall be:

A. Leveteracetam

B. Phenytoin

C. Phenobarbitone

D. Lorazepam

148. Corrent about respiratory distress syndrome is:

A. Seen after 6 hours of birth

B. Ante natal steroid

C. Term pregnancy

D. Air bronchogram seen on X-ray chest

149. A 7 years old girl with falling grades and

complaints by teacher that she is inattentive in class

to her parents and has bad school performance. On

hyperventilation her symptoms increased and

showed the following the following EEG findings.

Diagnosis is (graph is given)

A. Myoclonic epilepsy

B. myoclonus

C. Absence seizure

D. Juvenile myclonic epilepsy

150. One of the parents has a balanced translocation

between chromosome 15 and 21. What advice will

you provide to the couple to prevent a child being

born with Down’s syndrome:

A. Prenatal diagnosis & advice abortion

B. Artificial insemination with donor’s sperm

C. Adoption

D. No need worry as there is no increased risk

151. About trisomy 13, which of the following is a

true statement?

A. Bilateral micropthalmia

B. Neurofibroma

C. Rocker bottom feet

D. Dermoid cyst

152. A child hypoglycemia is not able to utilize

glucose from glycogenolysis or gluconeogenesis.

Which of the following enzyme is deficient in the

child?

A. Fructokinase

B. Glucokinase

C. Glucose 6-phosphatase

D. Transketolase

153. In a child, CSF examination is not used in

diagnosis of

A. ALL

B. Hodgking’s lymphoma

C. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

D. AML

154. A child presents with seborrheic dermatitis,

sinusitis and chronically draining ears. On

examination child h as failure to thrive with

hepatosplenomegaly and exophthalmos. Probable

diagnosis is

A. Histiocytosis-X

B. Wegener’s granulomatosis

C. Chronic granulomatous disease

D. Chediak-Higashi syndrome

155. Most common organism causing neonatal

sepsis:

A. Staphylococcus aureus

B. E. coli

C. Hemophilus influenza

D. Klebsiella

156. Which of the following is not a sign of PDA in a

preterm baby?

A. Apnea

B. tachycardia

C. Necrotizing enterocolitis

D. Narrow pulse pressure

157. A 7 years old child comes with fever and tibial

swelling exhibits on X-ray exhibits periosteal reaction

> Laboratory diagnosis of the patient?

A. MRI

B. Pus culture

C. Bone biopsy

D. Blood Culture

AIIMS November 2012

1. B

2. A

3a. C

3b. C

4. B

5. B

6. B

7. D

8. C

9. A

10. A

11. D

12. C

13. D

14. C

15. B

16a- A

16b- A

17a-A

17b- A

18- D

19- B

20- C

21- C

22-C

23 -

24- A

25- A

26- A

27- B

28- C

29- A

30- D

31- A

32- C

33- B

34- B

35- C

36- B

37- A

38- B

39- A

40- A

41- A

42- B

43- A

44. C

AIIMS November 2012

45. B

46. B

47. B

48. A

49. C

50. C

51. C

52. B

53. C

54. A

55. A

56. D

57. C

58. B

59. A

60. A

61. A

62. B

63. A

64. C

65. B

66. C

67. A

68. A

69. A

70. D

71. C

72. D

73. A

74. A

75. A

76. A

77. B

78. B

79. A

80. A

81. B

82. C

83. A

84. C

85. A

86. C

87. A

88. B

89. A

90. A

91. B

92. D

93. B

94. B

95. D

96. D

97. A

98. A

AIIMS November 2012

99. A

100. B

101. A

102. A

103. D

104. B

105. A

106. A

107. A

108. A

109. C

110. A

111. A

112. C

113. C

114. C

115. A

116. B

117. C

118. C

119. B

120a. A

120b. A

121. C

122. C

123. A

124. B

125. B

126. B

127a. D

127b. A

128a. A

128b. B

129. C

130. A

131. B

132. A

133. A

134a. D

134b. B

135. B

136. B

137a. C

137b. B

138. B

139. D

140. A

141. A

142. C

143. B

144. B

145. B

146. C

147. C

AIIMS November 2012

148. D

149. C

150. A

151. A

152. C

153. B

154. A

155. D

156. D

157. C