ALL INDIA PG MEDICAL ENTRANCE EXAMINATION-2012

ALL INDIA PG MEDICAL ENTRANCE EXAMINATION-2012

MICROBIOLOGY

1. A series of ulcers in lower extremities in sub-Himalayan area is often caused by:

1. Trichophyton rubrum

2. Psuedallescheria boydii

3. Cladosporium species

4. Sporothrix schenckii

2. Vaccination is based on the principle of:

1. Agglutination

2. Phagocytosis

3. Immunological memory

4. Clonal detection

3. Epstein – Barr virus causes autoimmunity by:

1. Molecular mimicry

2. Including insppropriate expression of Class II MHC

3. Release of sequestered antigens

4. Polyclonal B cell activation

4. The effect of cholera toxin is mediated via the stimulation of following second messenger:

1. cAMP

2. cGMP

3. Calcium-calmodulin

4. Acetylcholine

5. A characteristic infection of Nocardia asteroids is:

1. Diarrhea

2. Secondary dissemination to liver

3. Brain abscess

4. Colonic diverticula

6. The rheumatoid factor (RF) in the synovial fluid of patient with rheumatoid arthritis is most frequenly

found to be:

1. IgM reaction with IgG

2. Anti-IgM IgG

3. Antibody to collagen

4. IgG reacting with microbial cell wall polysaccharide

7. All of the following are true about HUS except:

1. Infection may be transmitted by food

2. HUS is caused by serotoxin-producing Escherichia coli

3. HUS is more common in children

4. HUS is rearly associated with heamorrhagic colitis

8. In a 5- yrs old boy who has history of recurrent pyogenic infections by bacteria with polysacchariderich

capsules, which of the following investigation should be done ?

1. IgA Deficiency

2. IgG IgA Deficiency

3. IgG2 IgA Deficiency

4. IgA and IgG2 Deficiency

9. The endotoxin of the following Gram-negative bacteria has no role in the pathogenesis of disease:

1. Escherichia coli

2. Klebsiella species

3. Vibrio cholerae

4. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

10. Salmonella typhi causes typhoid fever. The infection does of S. typhi is

1. One bacillus

2. 108 - 1010 bacilli

3. 102 – 105 bacilli

4. 1 to 10 bacilli

11. With reference to antibiotic resistance all of following statements are true except:

1. The most common mechanism is production of neutralizing enzymes by bacteria

2. Plasmid mediated resistance is exclusively transferred vertically

3. Compelete elimination of target is the mechanism by which enterococci develop resistance to

vancomycin

4. Alteration of target lesions leads to development of resistance to antibiotics in Streptococcus

pneumonia

12. Which of the following regarding the Interferon – gamma release assays used for the diagnosis of

tuberculosis is correct ?

1. 1st generation Quantiferon – TB used ESAT – 6

2. 2nd generation Quantiferon – TB (gold) used ESAT – 6 and CPF – 10

3. These tests can distinguish between M. tuberculosis and M. bovis

4. None of the non – tubercular mycobacteria give a positive reaction with this test

13. Which of the following is most resistant to the action of antiseptics and disinfectant ?

1. Spores

2. Coccidia

3. Prions

4. Mycobacteria

14. Bacteria resistance to antibiotics is a genetic event that is located in which part of the bacterial cell ?

1. Chromosome

2. Intron

3. Plasmid

4. Centromere

15. A person with AIDS – related complex is most likely suffering from

1. Opportunistic infections

2. Cancers related to AIDS

3. Generalized lymphadenopathy

4. Herpes zoster

16. A 5 yrs old child presents with pustular lesions on the lower legs. The culture from the lesion showed

hemolytic colonies on blood agar which were Gram-positive cocci. Provisional diagnosis of Group A

streptococcal pyoderma can be done by ?

1. Catalase positivity

2. Optochin sensitivity

3. Bile solubility

4. Bacitracin sensitivity

OPHTHALMOLOGY

1. A malnourished child from poor socioeconomic status, residing in overcrowded and dierty areas presents with a nodule around limbus with hyperemia of conjunctiva. Other significant findings were axillary and cervical lymphadenopathy:

1. Phlyctenural conjunctivitis

2. Foreign body granuloma

3. Scleritis

4. Episcleritis

2. A one year old child presents with lid lag and double round opacities on limbus with enlarged cornea (13 mm). What could be probable diagnosis?

1. Thyroid opthalmopathy

2. Congenital glaucoma

3. Superficial keratitis

4. -----------------------

3. CRAO may be seen in:

1. Diabetes mellitus

2. CMV retinium

3. Panophthalmitis

4. Orbital mucormycosis

4. Fundoscopy of a patient shows chalky white optic disc, the rest of the retina is absolutely normal. The most probable diagnosis is:

1. Primary optic atrophy

2. Post-neuritic optic atrophy

3. Glaucomatous atrophy

4. Consecutive optic atrophy

5. A 20 yrs old male presents with night blindness and tubular vision. His IOP was 18mmHg. Fundoscopy shows attenution of arterioles and waxy pallor of optic disc. Ring scotoma seen on perimetry. ERG is subnormal. The diagnosis is most likely to be:

1. Pigmentary retinal dystrophy

2. POAG

3. Lattice degeneration of retina

4. Diabetic retinipathy

6. The most common mode of spread of retinoblastoma is:

1. Haematogenous

2. Lymphatic

3. Optic nerve

4. Trans – sclera

7. Three weeks following IOL implantation, a patient complains of diminished vision. On fundus fluorescein angiography, flower petal hyperfluoresence of macula is noted. The most likely diagnosis is:

1. CME

2. Central serous retinopathy

3. Macular dystrophy

4. ARMD

8. An elderly male on eye examination shows a limbal scar, deep anterior chamber, iridodonesis, dark papillary reflex and visual acuity 6/6 with 11D lens. The diagnosis is:

1. Aphakia

2. Pseudophalia

3. Hypermetropia

4. Posterior dislocation of lens

9. A patient presents with diplopia in one eye. On examination with oblique illumination ,golden cresents and on axial illumination black/dark crescents are seen. The likelydiagnosis would be:

1. Ectopia lentis

2. Lenticonus

3. Colobona

4. Microspherophakia

10. A child presents with bilateral white papillary reflex. On lip lamp examination there is zone of opacity around fetal nucleus with spokes of wheel like arrangement towards centre. The most probable diagnosis would be:

1. Catarata pulverulenta

2. Lamellar cataract

3. Postirior polar cataract

4. Coronary cataract

11. Following 2 days of successful phacoemulsificantion and IOL placement, a diabetic patient presents with redness, pain and grey white papillary reflex. Patient also shows hypopyon, retrolental flare and posterior synecheae. The likely diagnosis is:

1. Post-op endophthalmitis

2. Post-op glaucoma

3. Post-op keratitis

4. Post-op cyslitis

12. A 35 yrs old male on slit lamp shows keratic precipitates and aqueous flare in his right eye. No synecheae but a complicated cataract is seen. The probable diagnosis would be:

1. Intermediate uveitis

2. Heerfordt’s syndrome

3. Subacute iridocyclitis

4. Heterochromic iridocyclitis of Fuch’s

13. A 35 year female presents with recurrent chalazion of the upper eyelid. The curettage should be subjected to histopathological examination to rule out which of the following ?

1. Sebaceous cell carcinoma

2. Squamous cell carcinoma

3. basal cell carcinoma

4. Malignant melanoma

14. An elderly diabetic patient presents with severe panophthalmiyis with orbital cellulites. A sample was collected from periorbital region, which on Gram staining shows irregularly branchingm, aseptate and broad hypae. The most likely etiological agent is:

1. Penicillium

2. Aspergillus

3. Candida

4. Apophysomyces

15. A regular contact lens user presents with complains of redness, photophobia and blurring of vision in one eye for more than 2 weeks, which was not responding to normal treatment. On examination cornea shows ring shaped lesion along with some overlying epithelial defect. The most prabable diagnosis would be:

1. Fungal keratitis

2. Viral keratitis

3. Acanthamoeba keratitis

4. Bacterial ulcer

16. Which of the following reflects wavelength (nanometers) of Laser used for shaping cornea in refractive surgery /

1. 193

2. 451

3. 532

4. 1064

OBSTETRICS AND GYNECOLOGY

1. Least likely to be seen in a normal pregnancy ?

1. Increased in blood volume

2. Increased in cardiac output

3. Increased in heart rate

4. Decrease in systolic pressure

2. A female has just given birth to a normal baby. The most appropriate time for starting Kegel’s execises is:

1. Immediately after delivery

2. 3-6 weeks after delivery

3. She should have started in 3rd trimester itself

4. After ceasarean section only

3. IUCD that does not require to be changed after 3-5 yrs is:

1. .Cu T 200

2. Cu T 375

3. Cu T 380 A

4. Multiload devices

4. Not done in active management of 3rd stage of labour:

1. Uterine massage

2. Early cord clamping

3. Inj.methergine

4. Inj. Oxytocin

5. In an HBsAg +ve female, Which of the following statements is true ?

1. Transmission is mainly transplacental

2. HBsAg immunoglobulin should be given to baby within 12 hrs

3. Active immunization should be done within 48 hrs

4. Immunization can be delayed up to 96 hrs

6. A young male presents with delayed puberty with decreased FSH, LH and testosterone. Which of the following is least likely possibility ?

1. Kallman’s syndrome

2. Klinefelter’s syndrome

3. Constitutional delay

4. Dax-1 gene defect

7. Mrs. A G3P1A1 is admitted in labour in a full-term pregnancy. On examination, she has uterine contractions 2 per 10 minutes, lasting 30-35 seconds, cervix is 4 cm dilated, membranes intact and

3/5ths of the head palpable per abdomen. On repeat examination 4 hrs later, cervix is 5 cm dilated, station is unchanged and the cervicograph remains o the right of alert line. Which of the following statements is true ?

1. The head was engaged at the time of presentation

2. Her cervicographical progress is satisfactory

3. Her cervicograph status suggests intervention

4. On repeat examination,her cervicograph should have touched the action line

8. The LH surgr occurs due to:

1. Markedly increased estrogen level

2. Increased level of prostaglandins

3. Increased in progesterone level

4. Decreased FSH levels

9. All of the following are germ cell tumours of the ovary except

1. Choriocarcinoma

2. Dysgerminoma

3. Granulosa cell tumour

4. Endodermal sinus tumour

10. A 55 yrs old female presents with abdominal pain, distension, ascites and dyspnea. Her CA – 125 levels are elevated. The most likely diagnosis is:

1. CA ovary

2. CA cervix

3. CA lung

4. Mucinous cystadenoma / lymphoma

11. All of the following are correct regarding mother-to-child transmission of HIV except:

1. Risk of infection decreases if elective ceasarean section is done

2. Majority of the babies do not have any transmission even if no active intervention is done

3. HIV may be transmitted to fetus during gestation

4. Risk of infection in fetus increases as duration of infecton in mother increases

12. A pregnant female presents with fever. On lab investigation her HB was decreased (7 mg %), TLC was normal and platelet count was also decreased. Peripheral smear shows fragmented RBCs. Which is least probable diagnosis?

1. DIC

2. TTP

3. HELLP syndrome

4. Evans syndrome

13. Not associated with gynaecomastia:

1. Prolactinoma

2. TSH secreting adenoma

3. hCG secreting tumour

4. Estrogen secretig tumor

14. True about twin delivery is (in case of preterm labour)

1. First has more chance of asphyxia

2. Second has more chance of policythemia

3. Second will develop hyaline membrane disease

4. Increased mortality in first twin

15. True about GFR in pre-eclampsia ?

1. GFR decreases

2. GFR Increases

3. Remains same

4. None of the above