Q.1 A 25 years old lady presents with sudden,
serve bilateral loss of vision more so on right side with no perception of
light. Rest of the examination including pupillary reflex, funds &
optokinetic nystagmus are npormal.She was able to touch tips of her finger with
right eye closed but not with left eye closed. Most likely diagnosis –
a) optic neuritis
b) anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy
c) cmv retinitis
d) functional visual loss
Q.2 A child presents bilateral white papillary
reflex, on slit lamp examination there is zone of opacity around fetal nucleus
with some spoke of wheel like arrangement towards centre. Probable diagnosis
would be –
a) Cataracta purvulenta
b) Lamellar cataract
c) Posterior pole cataract
d) coronary cataract
Q.3 A 40 years old lady presents with bilateral
papilloedema. CT scan shows normal ventricles. Diagnosis is:
a) Benign intracranial hypertension
b) Malignant hypertention
c) Papillitis
d) Raised intra – ocular pressure
Q.4 The total area of the retina seen in direct
ophthalmoscopy is –
a) 1 DD b) 2DD c)
3DD d) 4DD
Q.5 Which of the following is the most probable
diagnosis in a patient with loss of central vision and normal ERG with no
family history?
a) Best’s disease
b) Stargardt’s disease
c) Retinitis pigmentosa
d) Macular hole
Q.6 The most common mode of spread of
retinoblastoma is –
a) Haematogenous
b) Lymphatic c) Optic
nerve d) Trans-scleral
Q.7 Damage to
Superior oblique muscle causes diplopia in which direction
a) Horizontal and
downward
b) Vertical and
downward
c) Horizontal and
upward
d) Vertical and
upward
Q.8 Which of the following is affected structure
in PRP of retina?
a) Pigment Epithelium b) Bipolar cell layer
c) Layers of rods & cones d) Ganglion cell layer
Q.9 Dilator papillae is supplied by –
a) Post ganglionic parasympathetic fibers from Edinger
Westphal nucleus
b) Post ganglionic sympathetic fibers from cervical
sympathetic chain
c) III nerve
d) Sympathetic fibers
from fronto orbital branch of V nerve
Q.10 A lesion in the left temporal lobe Is most
likely to affect which visual field quadrant in the left eye :
a) Upper temporal
b) Lower temporal
c) Upper nasal
d) Lower nasal
Q.11. A 5 yr old boy
presented with leukocoria in right eye, while other eye had 2-3 small lesions
in the periphery. What will be the ideal management for this patient?
a) Enucleation of both eyes
b) Enucleation of right eye & conservative management
for the other eye
c) Enucleation for right eye and radiotherapy for the other
eye
d) 6 cycles of chemotherapy
Q.12. A patient
presents with diplopia in one eye. On examination with oblique illumination-
golden crescent and on axial illumination black/dark crescent is seen. Likely
diagnosis would be-
a) Ectopia lentis
b) Lenticonus
c) Coloboma
d) Microspherophakia
Q.13. Which of the
following sign is most commonly seen in thyroid orbitopathy
a) Optic neuropathy
b) External ophthalmopledia
c) Eyelid retraction
d0 Exophthalmos
Q.14. The most
important determinant in selecting a corrective procedure in any type of ptosis
is:
a) Age of the patient
b) Amount of ptosis
c) Levator function
d) Position of the lid crease
Q.15. What is
percentage of endothelial cell loss during Descemt’s membrance stripping in
automated penetrating keratoplasty-
a) 1.0-5%
b) 2.10-15%
c) 3.30-40%
d) 4.50-60%
Q.16. Mizuo
phenomenon is seen in-
a) Fundus albipunctatus
b) Fundus flavimiculatus
c) Oguchi’s disease
d) choroideremia
Q.17. Cherry-red spot
is seen in all of the following conditions except
a) GM1 gangliosidosis
b) Nlemann-Pick disease
c) Krabbes disease
d) Sandoff’s disease
Q.18. Following 2
days of successful phacoemulsification and IOL placement, a diabetic patient
presents with redness, pain & grey white papillary reflex. Patient also
shows hypopyon, retrolental flare & posterior synechiae. Likely diagnosis
is-
a) Post operative endophthalmitis
b) Post op Glaucoma
c) Post op Keratitis
d) Post op Cyclitis
Q.19. Commonest cause
for bilateral proptosis in children?
a) Cavernous haemangioma
b) Rhabdomyosarcoma
c) ALL
d) AML
Q.20.
Blepharophimosis is generally associated with all of the following except:
a) Ectropion
b) Distichiasis
c) Epicanthus
d) Telecanthus
Q.21. Three weeks
following IOL implantation, a patient complains of diminished vision, on fundus
florescent angiography flower petal hyperfluorescence of macula is noted. Most
likely diagnosis is-
a) CME
b) Central serous retinopathy
c) Macular dystrophy
d) ARMD
Q.22. Fundoscopy of a
patient shows chalky white optic dis,rest of the retina is absolutely
normal.probable diagnosis is-
a) Primary optic atrophy
b) Post neuritic optic atrophy
c) Glaucomatous atrophy
d) Consecutive optic atrophy
Q.23. A35 year old
male on slit lamp shows Keratic precipitates & aqueous flare in his right
eye. No synechiae but a complicated cataract is seen. Probable diagnosis would
be-
a) Intermediated uveitis
b) Heerfordt’s syndrome
c) Subacute iridocyclitis
d) Heterochromic iridocyclitis of Fuch’s
Q.24. An
immunocompetent male presents with difficulty in vision. He gives history of
vegetative material fallen in affected eye. On examination corneal ulcer with
feathery margin & creamy exudates seen. Few satellite lesions were also
noted. Likely diagnosis is-
a) Fusarium
b) Acanthameba
c) Pneumococci
d) Corynebacterium
Q.25. All of the
following can cause optic neuritis except:
a) Rifampicin
b) Digoxin
c) Chloroquine
d) Ethambutol
Q.26. Retinitis
pigmentosa is a triad of all except:
a) Bony spicules
b) Optic atrophy
c) vascular attenuation
d) Complicated cataract
Q.27. In the fetus,
angiogenesis in the eye involve all except:
a) TNFa
b) IL-8
c) bFGF
d) VEGF
Q.28. Constantly
changing refractory error is seen in
a) Traumatic cataract
b) Diabetic cataract
c) Morgagnian cataract
d) Intumescent cataract
Q.29. Treatment for
threshold retinopathy is
a) Deoxygenation
b) Panretinal photocoagulation
c) Laser photocoagulation
d) Wait and watch
Q.30. 60 yr old man,
both HTN and DM for 10 years, there is reduced vision in one eye, on fundus
examination there is a central bleed and the fellow eye is normal, the
diagnosis
a) Diabetic retinopathy
b) Retinal tear
c) Optic neuritis
d) Hypertensive retinopathy
Q.31. Which of the
following is a corneal epithelial dystrophy
a) Dot print
b) Macular
c) Granular
d) Lattice
Q.32. Posterior
staphyloma can occur in:
a) Corneal ulcer
b) Pathological Myopia
c) Scleritis
d) Interestitial keratitis
Q.33. In patients
with facial nerve paralysis all are present except:
a) Epiphora
b) Eye brow ptosis
c) Blepharoptosis
d) Interestitial keratitis
Q.34. Which of the
following drug is currently used for the prophylaxis of non infections uveitis
in LUMINATE programme-
a) Cyclosporine
b) Voclosporine
c) Methotrexate
d) Inflisimib
Q.35. On performing
refraction using a plane mirror on a patient who has a refractive error of + 1
diopter sphere with -2 diopter cylinder at 900 from a distance of 1
meter under no cycloplegia, the reflex would be seen to move.
a) With the movement
in the horizontal axis and in the vertical axis.
b) With the movement in vertical axis and no movement in the
horizontal axis.
c) Against the movement in both the axis.
d) With the movement in horizontal axis, and no movement in
the vertical axis.
Q.36. A regular
contact lens user presents with complains of redness, photophobia &
blurring of vision in one eye for more than 2 weeks, which was not responding
to normal treatment. On examination cornea shows ring shaped lesion along with
some overlying epithelial defect. probable diagnosis would be-
a) Fungal keratitis
b) Viral keratitis
c) Acanthameba keratitis
d) Bacterial ulcer
Q.37. According to
the pump-leak theory
a) Sodium ions are actively pumped into the lens
b) Only active transport is involved in ion movement into
the lens
c) Sodium flows into the back of the lens along a
concentration gradient
d) Oubain can stimulate the pump
Q.38. The eye of new
born is
a) Hypermetropic with regular astigmatism
b) Hypermetropic
c) Hypermetropic with irregular astigmatism
d) Myopic
Q.39. Tear are
produced in a newborn after…
a) 1 wk
b) 2 wk
c) 3 wk
d) 4 wk
Q.40. Corneal reflex
afferent is mediated by:
a) Sensory nucleus of trigeminal nerve
b) Facial nerve
c) Mesencephalic nucleus of the trigeminal nerve
d) Trochlear nerve
Q.41. Enothalmos is
due to palsy of
a) LPS
b) Superior tarsal plate
c) orbitalis
d) tenon’s capsule
Q.42. Thinnest part
of sclera:
a) limbus
b) anterior to attachment of superior rectus
c) posterior to attachment of superior retus
d) equator
Q.43. Diplopia with
limitation of adduction of rt eye with abduction saccades of lt eye and normal
convergence is due to
a) duane’s retraction syndrome
b) partial 3rd nerve palsy
c) internuclear ophthalmoplegia
d) absence of medial rectus
Q.44. Palsy of left
abducens nerve causes:
a) Diplopia on left gaze
b) Inability to accommodate on all sides
c) Abduction difficulty in right eye
d) Adduction difficulty in left eye
Q.45. Raised NSE
levels in aqueous is seen in:
a) Galactosemia
b) Glaucoma
c) Hemangioblastoma
d) Retinoblastoma
Q.46. Mass treatment
with azithromycin is indicated if prevalence of trachoma follicles(TF) in 1-9
years populations is more than-
a) 1.10%
b) 2.8%
c) 3.6%
d) 4.4%
Q.47. All of
following occur in herpes zoster ophthalmicus except
a) pseudodendritic keratitis
b) anterior stromal invasion
c) sclera keratitis
d) endothelitis
Q.48. WHO grading
(X3a) for Xerophthalmia Indicates:
a) Corneal xerosis
b) Keratomalacia
c) Corneal ulcer
d) Conjunctival xerosis and Bitots spot
Q.49. A20 yr old Male
present with night blindness and tubular vision. His IOP was 18mm of hg.
Fundoscopy shows attenution of arterioles & waxy pallor of optic disc.Ring
scotoma seen on perimetry. ERG is subnormal.-
a) Pigmentary retinal dystrophy
b) POAG
c) Lattice Degeneration of retina
d) Diabetic retinopathy
Q.50. ICG angiography
is primarily indicated in:
a) Minimal classical CNV
b) Occult CNV
c) Angioid streak with CNV
d) Polypoidal choroidal vasculopathy
Q.51. CRAO may be
seen in-
a) Diabetes mellitus
b) CMV retinitis
c) Panophthalmitis
d) Orbital mucormycosis
Q.52. Stereopsis is
which grade of binocular vision
a) grade2
b) grade3
c) grade4
d) grade1
Q.53. Cystoid macular
edema occurs due to a break in:
a) Outer blood-retinal barrier
b) Inner blood-retinal barrier
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
Q.54. Mittendorf’s
dots are present on the
a) Anterior corneal surface
b) Posterior corneal surface
c) Anterior lens surface
d) Posterior lens surface
Q.55. A malnourished
child from poor socioeconomic status, residing in overcrowded & dirty areas
present with a nodule around limbus with hyperemia of conjunctiva. Other
significant findings were axillary & cervical lymph adenopathy-
a) Phylectenular conjunctivitis
b) foreign body granuloma
c) Scleritis
d) Episcleritis
Q.56. How much angle
should each letter substend at the nodal point of the eye at the given distance
in the Snellen’s chart?
a) 3 minutes
b) 5 minutes
c) 7 minutes
d) 9 minutes
Q.57. Reticular
retinoschisis is splitting of retina between:
a) Outer plexiform and inner nuclear layer
b) Nerve fiber layer and ganglion cell layer
c) Ganglion cell layer and inner plexiform layer
d) Inner plexiform layer and outer nuclear layer
Q.58. Projection of
light is interfered in
a) Morgagnian cataract
b) Acute congestive glaucoma
c) Macular degeneration
d) Retinitis pigmentosa
Q.59. Blood vessels
in a trechomatous pannus lie:
a) Beneath the Descemet’s membrane
b) In the substantia propria
c) Between Bowman’s membrane and substantia propria
d) Between Bowman’s membrane and epithelium
Q.60. Amsler’s sign
is seen in:
a) Posner- Schlossman syndrome
b) Pars Planitis
c) Macular degeneration
d) Fuch’s uveitis
Q.61. Naffziger test
is a clinical test for measuring
a) Ptosis
b) Proptosis
c) Miosis
d) Mydriasis
Q.62. Corneal
endothelium ion exchange pump are inhibited by:
a) Anaerobic glycolysis inhibition
b) Anaerobic glycolysis activation
c) CGMP Phosphodiesterase inhibition
d) Interference with electronic chaon transport.
Q.63. An elderly male
on eye examination shows Limbal scar, deep ant chamber, iridodonesis, dark
papillary reflex, visual acuity 6/6 with 11D LENS. Diag?
a) Aphakia
b) Pseudophakia
c) Hypermetropia
d) Posterior dislocation of lens
Q.64. In contrast to
surgical third nerve palsy, all are true with medical third nerve palsy except:
a) Does not affect papillary response to light
b) Does not affect accommodation
c) Causes a decreased in intraocular press
d) Causes upper lid elevation on attempted downgaze
Q.65. Mucin layer
tear film deficiency occurs in:
a) Keratoconjunctivits sicca
b) Lacrimal gland removal
c) Canalicular block
d) Herpetic keratitis.
No comments:
Post a Comment