Sunday, October 20, 2013

OPHTHALMOLOGY 2014-15



DISEASES OF LENS:

1. Which of the following ATT is associated with cataract:
a)INH
b)Rifampicin
c)Ethambutol
d)Capreomycin
2. Riders are commonly seen in:
a) Blue-dot cataract
b) zonular cataract
 c) Embryonal nuclear cataract
d) diffuse nuclear cataract
3. In general the first muscle to be rendered akinetic with retrobulbar anesthetic block is:
a) Superior rectus
b) Superior oblique
c) lnferior rectus
d) l nferior obloque
4.History of colored halos is present in all except:
a) Mucopurulent ConJUNCTIVITIS
b) Closed angle Glaucoma
c) Steroid induced Glaucoma
d) Phalcosis
5. Anterior polar cataract develops after:
a) Diadetes mellitus
b) Penetrating injury of cornea
c) lrradiation
d) Chalcosis
6. Typical diabetes cataract has characteristic morphology of:
a) Sunflower
b) Oil droplet
 c) Snowflake
7. Constantly changing refractory error is seen in
a) Traumatic cataract
b) Diadetic cataract
c) Morgagnian cataract
d) Intumescent cataract
8. During cataract surgery, the best irrigating solution to use is:
a) DSS
b) Ringer lactate
c) Normal saline
d) BSS with glutathione
9. Sunflower cataract is seen in:
a) Concussion injiury
b) Penetrating injury
c) Hypertension
d) Diabetes
10. Anterior Lenticonus is found in:
a) Lowes syndrome
b) Turners syndrome
c) Down`s syndrome
d) Alports synsrome
11. Steroid induced cataract is
a) Anterior subcapsular
b) osterior subcapsular
c) Nuclear
d) Cupulliform cataract
12. Intra ocular ienses are made up of
a) PMMA
b) HEMA
c) Glass
d) plastic
13. Ectopia Lentis is seen in all the following conditions except;
a) Congenital Rubella
b) Marchesani`s Syndrome.
c) Narfan syndrome
 d) Homocystinuria
14. Most common type of Congenital Cataract is:
       a) Capsular            b) Zonular          c) Coralliform        d) Blue Dot
 15. Clinical features of complicated cataract are all except:
       a)  Polychromatic luster
       b)  Axial spread of opacity
       c)  Opacity along sutures
       d)  Posterior subcapsular opacity
16.  Laser used in cutting out cataract capsule is:
       a) Nd YAG Laser        b) Argoon Laser
       c) Dye Laser                d) Diode
17.   All are methods of intracapsular extraction of lens except
       a) Phacoemulsification
       b) Cryo surgery
       c) Forceps delivery
       d) Irisophake
18.  Intraocular lens are made of:
       a) PMMA            b) Silicon        c) Hydrogel
       d)  Acrylic           e) All                   
19.  In finchams’ test , there is break-up of halo and rejoining (patient presents with colored halo and  giddiness).Diagnosis is:
      a)  Open- Angel Glaucoma
      b)  Cataract
      c)  Mucopurulent Conjunctivitis 
      d)  Acute Angle closure glaucoma.

20. Polycromatic luster is seen in:
       a) Zonular cataract
       b) Posterrior Subcapsular Cataract
       c) Nuclear Cataract
       d) Anterior subcapsular cataract
 21.  Vossius ring is seen in:
       a) Anterior capsule of lens
       b) Posterior capsule of lens
       c) Nucleus
       d) Cortex
22.”Second sight of old age” is generally due to:
       a) Coronary Cataract
       b) Nuclear Cataract
       c) Anterior capsular cataract
       d) Posterior polar cataract
23. Sunflower- type cataract is characteristically seen in:
       a) Chalcosis           b) Diabetes
       c) Stargardts’ disease       d) Congenital syphilis
24. Hamarlopia occurs in:
       a) Central cataract     b) Peripheral Cataract
       c) Hypermature cataract     d) Mature cataract

25.  Ideal site for intra-ocular lens implantation is:
      a) Anterior to pupil
      b) Ciliary sulcus
      c) On Anterior capsule  
     d) On posterior capsule

26. Lens capsule is thinnest at the:
     a) Centre Anteriorly
     b) At Equator
     c) Centre posteriorly
     d) Superiorly

27.The most commpn complication of hypermature sclerotic cataract is:
a. Dislocation of the lens
b.Phacomorphic Glaucoma
c.Uveitis
d. Neovascularisation of retina.

28.Developmental cataract is seenin:
a.Rubella
b.Galactosemia
c.Mongolian idiocy
d.Cretinism
e.All
                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                        
29.A 60-year old male patient operated for cataract 6 months back now complains of floaters and sudden loss of vision. The diagnosis is:
a. Vitreous Hemorrhage
b. Retinal Detachment
c. CRAO
d. CME






ORBIT
20) A boy presents with diplopia abd restruction of eye moivements following blunt trauma to his eye. reveals  blow-out fracture of orbit  Which part of orbit is most likely damaged.
a) Superior wall
b) Pnferior well
c) Medial well
d) Lateral well

21) Leucocoria can be seen in all except:
a) Persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous
b) Congenital glaucoma
c) Fungal endophthalmitis
d) Retinoblastoma


22) Which is not a complication of blunt trauma to eye:
a) Hyphema
b) Retinal detachment
c) Double perforation of iris
d) LIdodialysis


23) Best X-ray view to visualize superior orbital fissure is:
a) AP
b) Basal
c) Towne’s
d) Caldwell luc’s view
24) Pseudohyopoyon is seen in:
a) Mycotic infection
b) Herpetic infection
c) sympathetic ophthalmia
d) Retinoblastoma


25) Unilaterl pulsating exophthalmos is presentin:
a) Orbital varices
b) Cavernous sinus thrombosis
c) Carotico cavernous aneurysm
d) Toxic thyroid goiter


26) A patient had running nose and pain over medical aspect of eye being trated with decongestants for many days.  He later developed chemosis, protosis and diplopia on abduction of right eye with congestion of optic disc.  what is the probable diagnosis?
a) Acute ethmoridal sinusitis
b) Orbital cellulitis
c) Cavernous sinus thrombosis
d) Orbital apex syndrome

27) Earliset sign of cavernous sinus thrombosis is:
a) Proptosis
b) Vomiting
c) Ophthalmoplegia
d) Swelling of lids

28) The average volume of orbit is:
a) 6cc
b) 12cc
c) 24cc
d) 30cc

29) Enculeation means:
a) Removal of contents of globe
b) Removal of the content of the globe and all of sclera except for a frill around the optic nerve
c) Removal of entire globe along with a portion of optic nerve
d) Removal of the entire content of orbit

30) Which is the weakest wall of the orbit:
a. Superior
b. Medial
c. Lateral
d. Inferior

31) Vortex vein invasion is commonly seen in:
a. Retinoblastoma
b. Malignant melanoma
c. Optic nerve glioma
d. Medullo-epitheliomas

32) Hereditary retinoblastoma develop the following chromosomal deletion:
a. 13 q 14
b. 13 p 14
c. 14 p 13
d. 14 q 13

33) Frills excision is done in:
a. Intraocular tumor
b. Endophtalmitis
c. Panophtalmitis
d. F.B. in eye

34)  A one year old child having leucocoria ws detected to be having a unilateral, large retinoblastoma filling half the globe Current therapy would involve:
a. Enucleation
b. Chemotherapy followed by local dye
c. Direct laser abeation using photo dynamic
d. Cryotherapy
e. Scleral radiotherapy followed by chemotherapy

35)Fasanella servat operation is specifically indicated in:
a. Congenital ptosis
b. Steroid-induced ptosis
c. Myasthenia gravis
d. Horner’s syndrome

36) Most common parasitic infection found in the orbit is:
a. Cysticercosis
b. Entamoeba
c. Onchocerciasis
d. Toxoplasmosis

37) Peripheral orbital space lies between:
a. Bones of orbital wall and periorbital and Extraocular muscles
b. In the muscle cone
d. Around the sclera

38) All the nerves pass through SOF except:
a. Oculomotor
b. Optic nerve
c. Trochlear
d. Opthalmic division of the fifth nerve

39) Exopthalmos is a feature of all except:
a. Carotico-Cavernous fistula
b. Corotid artery aneurysm
c. Myasthenia gravis
d. Neurofibromatosis

40) Proptosis in the young child is produced by following  except:
a. Leukemia
b. Retinoblastoma
c. Glioma
d. Meningioma


41) In panophtalmitis the treatment of choice is:
a. Enucleation
b. Evisceration
c. Exentreration
d. None of the above

42) A45 yrs old male presented with proptosis with reduced upward and downward movements. On USG there is a cystic lesion in superior rectus that contains hyperdense material. The next likely diagnosis is:
a. Orbital cysticercosis
b. Dermoid
c. Hemangioma
d. Retinoblastoma

43)SOF lies between:
a. Body of sphenoid and lesser wings of sphenoid
b. Body of sphenoid and greater wings of sphenoid
c. Lesser and greater wing of sphenoid
d. Zygomatic bone and frontal bone

44) Which of the following causes U/L proptosis:
a. Glioma of the optic nerve
b. Craniosynostosi
c. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
d. Thyroid opthalmopathy

45) Bilateral congenial exopthalmos is seen in:
a. Goldenhar syndrome
b. Cloverleaf skull
c. Horners syndroms
d. Neurofibromatosis

MCQs:
1
D
11
B
21
B
31
B
41
D
2
D
12
D
22
C
32
A
42
A
3
A
13
D
23
D
33
C
43
C
4
A
14
B
24
D
34
A
44
A
5
C
15
A
25
C
35
D
45
B
6
A
16
D
26
C
36
A


7
C
17
A
27
C
37
B


8
D
18
C
28
D
38
B


9
C
19
C
29
C
39
C


10
A
20
B
30
B
40
D





OCULAR  ADENEXAE:

1) Squamous blepharitis leads to the following complications except:
a. Trichiasis
b. Madarosis
c. Tylosis
d. Poliosis

2)Stay is inflammation of:
a. Gland of zeiss
b. Gland of moll
c. Meibomian gland
d. Lacrimal gland

3) Lid-lag on the ptotic side down-gaze is characteristic of:
a. Congenital ptosis
b. Traumatic ptosis
c. Myogenic ptosis
d. Synkinetic ptosis

4) Commonest tumor of lid is:
a. Adenocarcinoma
b. BAsal-cell carcinoma
c. Malignant melanoma
d. Squamous cell carcinoma

5) Bilateral ptosis is not seen in:
a. Marfans syndrome
b. Myasthenia dystrophy
c. Myotonic dystrophy
d. Kearns sayre syndrome

6) Important causes of entropion of upper lid are all except:
a. Trachoma
b. Chemical burn
c. Involutional
d. Steven- Johanson syndrome

7) Wheelers operation is done in:
a. Ectropion
b. Entropion
c. Ptosis
d. Trichiasis

8) Ptsos with weakness of orbicularies oculi is seen in:
a. Polymyositis
b. Myasthenia gravis
c. Eaton- lambert syndrome
d. Thyrotoxicosis

9) Madarosis is seen in:
a. T.B
b. DM
c. Leprosy
d. Waardenberg’s syndrome

10) Average height of palpebral fissure is:
a. 8 mm
b. 9 mm
c. 10 mm
d. 11 mm

11) Conjuctivoplasty is indicated for:
a. Cicatrical ectropion
b. Senile entropion
c. Senile ectropion
d. Cicatrical entropion

12) Modified Kuhnt Szymanowaski procedure is done for:
a. Proptosis
b. Ectropion
c. Entropiom
d. Ptosis

13)  Everbusch operation is done for:
a. Proptosis
b. ptosis
c. Lagopathalmos
d. Etropion

14) All are complication of chronic staphylococcal blepharoconjunctivities  except:
a. Stye
b. Marginal keratitis
c. Follicular conjuctivities
d. Preseptal cellulitis

15) Cause of pseudoptosis is:
a. Third nerve palsy
b. Pthsis bulbi
c. Lid retraction
d. Seventh nerve palsy
16) Surgery done in Marcus Gunn ptosis:
a. Fasanella Servat
b. Levator Resection
c. Levator aponeurosis with Frontalis sling
d. Wheelers operation

17) Commonest cause of cicatrical entropion in India is:
a. Trachoma
b. TB
c. Burns
d. Trauma

18) Fasanella Servat is done for:
a. Severe ptosis
b. Mild ptosis
c. Involutional ptosis
d. Jaw-Winking phenomenon

19) Most painful condition of the eyelid is:
a. Meibomian cyst
b. Malignant melanoma
c. Trichiasis
d. Sebaceous cell carcinoma
20) Blepharophimosis is generally associated with all of the following except:
a. Ectropion
b. Distichiasis
c. Epicanthus
d. Telecanthus

21) Ankyloblepharon is:
a. Adhesion of globe to the lid
b. Adhesion of  both the lids
c. Adhesion of  the lids to the fornix
d. Adhesion of lid to globe not involving the fornix

22) Blepharochalasia is:
a. Usually B/L
b. Seen in old age
c. Due to relaxation and defect in orbital fecia
d. All of the

23) Hypertophy of lid edge and drooping is called:
a. Lagophthalmos
b. tylosis
c. Ectropion
d. Entropion
24) Most common intraorbital metastatic tumor in children is:
a. Non- Hodgkins lymphoma
b. Neuroblastoma
c. Ca Nasopharynx
d. Malignant melanoma

25) Which type of retinoblastoma causes retional detachment?
a. Gliomaexophytum
b. Gliomaendophytum
c. Glioma planum
d. All of  above


KEY:
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
A
A
A
B
A
C
B
B
C
C
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
B
C
B
C
B
C
A
B
A
B
21
22
23
24
25





B
D
B
B
A























Lacrimal Drainage System:

1) Watering from the eyes of an infant occurs in all of the following except:
a. Congenital dacryocystitis
b. Bupthalmos
c. Cornial foreign body
d. Corneal dystrophy

2) Mother of 3 months old infant complains of watering from one eye. On pressing of lacrimal sac there is regurgitation of mucopurulent material. The appropriate treatment is:
a. DCR
b. Probing
c. Probing with syringing
d. Local massage and antibiotics

3) Most common ocular finding in mumps is:
a. Chorio- retiniyis
b. Anterior uveitis
c. Haemorrhagic conjuctivities
d. Dacryo- cysto adenitis

4) Chronic dacryocystitis is more  common in:
a. Children
b. Elderly male
c. Women
d. Young males

5) Most common organism causing chronic dacryocystitis is:
a. Staph aureus
b. Pseudo pyocyanea
c. Streptococcus haemolyticus
d. Mycotuerculosis

6) Most common tumor of lacrimal gland is:
a. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
b. Adenocarcinoma
c. Bening mixed tumor
d. Mucoepidermoid  carcinoma

7) In DCR operation, opening in nose made in:
a. Superior meatus
b. Inferior meatus
c. Middle meatus
d. Superior turbinate

8) Valve at the entry of the common canaliculus:
a. Valve of Hasner
b. Valve of Rosenmuller
c. Both
d. None

9) Nerve for tear secretion is:
a. Greater superficial petrosal nerve
d. Facial nerve
c. Deep petrosal nerve
d. Maxillary nerve

10) DCR is contraindicated in:
a. Mucocoele
b. Chronic acryocystitis
c. NLD obstruction
d. TB of the lacrimal sac

11) Distance of Angular vein from medial canthus as it passes over medial palpebral ligament is:
a. 6 mm
b. 10 mm
c. 8 mm
d. 12 mm

12) Treatment of lacrimal mucocoele is:
a. DCR
b. Probing
c. DCT
d. Antibiotics

13) Syndrome characterized by symmetrical enlargement of lacrimal and salivary glands:
a. Sjogren’s syndrome
b. Mikulikz syndrome
c. Sturuge Weber
d. KCS

14) Volume of tear film is:
a. 5 μl
b. 6 μl
c. 7 μl
d.8 μl

15) Which of the following is false:
a. Normal BUT is more than 10 secs
b. Jones dye test is used for dry eye
c. Rose Bengal stains dead cells
d. Acetycystaine dissolve mucus

16) Ideal time for syringing and probing is:
a. 2-3 months
b. 4-6 months
c. 1 year
d. 2 years


KEY
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
D
D
D
C
A
C
C
B
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
A
D
C
A
B
C
B
C





















FUNDUS:

1) Amsler grid chart is used for testing:
a. Angle of primary deviation
b. Angle of secondary Deviaton
c. Macular function
d. Optic nerve function

2) Earlist opthalmoscopic sign of diabetic retiopathy is:
a. Hard exudates
b. Vitreous haemorrhage
c. Dot haemorrhage
d. Microaneurysms

3) The commonest cause of rubeosis iridis is:
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Central vein occlusion
c. Central retional artery occlusion
d. Carotide stenosis

4) Which type of retinal break is more likely to result in RD:
a. Symptomatic superior horse-shoe break
b. Asymptomatic horse-shoe break
c. Symptomatic round hole
d. Lattice degeneration

5) Amaurotic cat’s eye reflex is seen in all of the following except:
a. Retinoblastoma
b. Cyclitic membrance
c. Endophthalmitis
d. Granulomatous iridocyclitis

6)All are true regarding Easel disease except:
a. Occurs in young
b. Vitreous haemorrhage
c. Vascular sheathing
d. Optic neuritis
e. Retinal detachment

7)  Cattle-track appearance is seen in:
a. CRAO
b. CRVO
c. BRAO
d. BRVO

8) All of the following changes are caused by being hypertension in retina except:
a. Narrowing of arterioles
b. Exudates
c. Cotton woolspots
d. Retinal haemorrhage                                                                                                                                                                                            

9) For flourancence angiography of retina, dye is injected in:
a. Femoral artery
b. Antecubital vein
c. Opthalmic artery
d. Internal cardio artery

10) Sauce  and cheese retinopathy is seen in:
a.CMV
b.Rubella
c. Acute congestive glaucoma
d. Congenital syphilis

11) Cause of acute loss of vision in patient of alcoholic pancreatitis is:
a.Purtscher’s  retionopathy
b. Sudden alcohol with drawl
c. Acute congestive glaucoma
d. CRAO

12) All are fundus findings of diabetic retinopathy except:
a. Micronenrysms
b. Retinal haemorrhage
c. Arteriolar dilatation
d. Neovascularisation

13) Laser photocoagulation affects which layer of the retina:
a. Layer of rods and cones
b. Retinal pigment epithelium
c. Inner plexiform layer
d. Nerve  fibre layer

14) Pepper salt fundus is seen in:
a. Multiple sclerosis
b. Cystinosis
c. Weil marchesani syndrome
d. Congenital syphilis

15) Toxic maculopathy occurs due to all except:
a. Tamoxifen
b. Chloroquine
c. Thioridazine
d. Steroids

16) Cherry-red spot over retina is seen in all except:
a. Tay sach’s disease
b. Neimann pick disease
c. CRAO
d. Batten Mayo syndrome

17) Thinnest part of retina is:
a. Optic disc
b. Fovea centralis
c. Ora serrata
d. Mid-Peripheral retina

18) Diabetic retinopathy is common in:
a. NIDDM of 2 year duration
b. IDDM of 2 year duration
c. Juvenile onset diabetes before puberty
d. Pregnancy included gestational diabetes

19) The lesser procedure, most often used for treating iris neovascularisation is:
a. Goniophotocoagulation
b. Laser trabeculoplasty
c. PAn retinal photocoagulation
d. Laser iridoplasty

20) Fundus of young patient shows pigment along retinal vessels, waxy exudates over retina and pale disc. The diagnosis is:
a. Retinitis pigmentatosa
b. Diabetic retinopathy
c. Central serous retinopathy
d. Lattice degeneration of retina

21)  A 66- year old elderly male present with heart disease and has sudden loss of vision in one eye, examination reveals a cherry red spot over the fundus, the likely diagnosis is:
a. Central retinal vein occlusion
b. Central retinal artery occlusion
c. maurosis fugax
d. Acute ischemic optic neuritis

22) Most common cause of blindness in non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy is:
a. Sub-retinal heamorrhage
b. Macular edema
c. Retinal detachment
d. Vitreous haemorrhage

23) Henle,s layer is:
a. Outer Nuclear layer
b. Outer plexiform layer
c. Inner Nuclear layer
d. Inner plexiform layer

24) Posterior segment feature of HR include all except:
a. Macular star
b. Cotton wool spots
c. Microaneurysms
d. Elschnig spots

25) Cystoid macular edema involves break in:
a. Outer blood retinal barrier
b. Inner blood retinal barrier
c. Both of the above
d. None

26) ETDRS vision chart study is done in patients with diabetic retinopathy. ETDRS stands for:
a. Emergency treatment for diabetic retinopathy and study
b. Eye testing on rotator drum and its study
c. Extended therapy for diabetic retinopathy and its study
d. Early treatment for diabetic retinopathy study

27) A young male presented with sudden painless loss of vision. He recovered spontaneously within 3 months. Most likely cause of his blindness:
a. Central serous retinopathy
b. Macular hole
c. Myopic crescent
d. Vitreous haemorrhage

28) The color best appreciated by the central cones of our foevo-macular area are:
a. Red and blue
b. Blue and Green
c. Red and Green
d. Blue and Yellow

29) Night blindness occurs in all except:
a. Retinitis pigmentation
b. High myopia
c. Vitamin A deficiencies
d. Tobacco amblyopia

30) Photoretinitis is seen with:
a. Ultra violet rays
b. Infrared rays
c. Gamma rays
d. X-rays

31) Significant loss of vision in a patient with hypertension can occur due to all of the following except:
a. Occipital infarct
b. Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy
c. Papilloedema
d. Retinal haemorrhages in fundus examination

32) All of the following are features of CRVO except:
a. Gross impairment of vision
b. Sever pain in the eye
c. Superficial haemorrhages in fundus examination
d. Markedly dilate veins

33) Which of the following staphyloma occurs in high myopia:
a. Ciliary staphyloma
b.Posterior staphyloma
c. Anterior staphyloma
d. Intercalary staphyloma

34) Normal ratio of size of arteries and veins in fundus is:
a. 2:3
b. 3;2
c. 1:1
d. 3:5

35) In RD fluid accumulates  b/w:
a. Layers of OPL and INL
b. Neorpsensory retina and RPE
c. NFL and rest of the retina
d. Between RPF and Bruch’s membrane

36) Acquire retinoschisis has following features except:
a. It is splitting of sensory retina in two layers
b. It is more common in myopes
c. It is common in the inferotemporal Peripheral
d. It occurs more commonly along the OP layer

37) Retinopathy of leukemia includes all the following except:
a. Dilated and tortuous retinal viens
b. Roth’s spot
c. Retinal haemorrhage
d. Foster fuch spot

38) Angiod streaks are seen in all except:
a. Paget’s disease
b. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum
c. Ehler Danlos syndrome
d. Myopic maculopathy

39) Retinal detachment with photopsia and floaters are seen in:
a. Rhegmatogenous RD
b. Exudative RD
c. Tractional RD
d. Vitreous haemorrhage

40) ICG angiography is best indicated for:
a. Classical ARMD
b. Dry ARMD
c. Occult ARMD
d. Wet ARMD

41) Gyrate atrophy of choroid is characterized by:
a. Hyperornithenaemia
b. Hyperlysenemia
c. Macular degeneration
d. None of above

42) Sun-burst spots are seen in:
a. DM
b. HT
c. Eale’s ds
d. Sickle- cell anaemia

43) In ERG ‘a’ wave is due to:
a. Bipolar cells
b. Ganglion cells
c. Roads and cones
d. NFL

44) Vitreous haemorrhage is a feature of all except:
a. Proliferative DR
b. Background  DR
c. CRVO
d. Sickle –cell anaemia

45) Most common finding in retinopathy in toxaemia of pregnancy is:
a. Arterial spasm
b. Hard exudates
c. Soft exudates
d. Macular star

KEY OF MCQ’s

1
C
11
A
21
B
31
C
41
A
2
D
12
C
22
B
32
B
42
D
3
A
13
B
23
B
33
B
43
A
4
A
14
D
24
C
34
A
44
B
5
D
15
D
25
B
35
B
45
A
6
D
16
D
26
D
36
B


7
A
17
C
27
A
37
D


8
C
18
A
28
C
38
D


9
B
19
C
29
D
39
A


10
A
20
A
30
B
40
C


















Neuropthalmology:

1) Field defects seen in pituitary adenomas are:
a. Homonymous infero-nasal field defect
b. Homonymous supero-temporal field defect
c. Homonymous infero-nasal field defects
d. Homonymous supero-temporal field defects

2) Supranuclear lesions are characterized by all the following except:
a. Gaze Palsies
b. Absence of diplopia
c. Normal reflex movement
d. Abnormal retinal correspondence

3) Which of the following is true regarding cortical blindness?
a. Direct and consensual reflex absent in both eyes.
b. Direct and consensual reflex present in both eyes.
c. Direct reflex present & consensual reflex absent on affected side.
d. Direct reflex present & consensual reflex absent on normal side.

4) Bitemporal hemianopia is seen in which condition:
a. Retinoblastoma
b. Aneurysm circle of willis
c. Temporal SOL
d. Frontal SOL

5)  The typical field defect in tobacco amblyopia is:
a. Central
b. Centrocaecal
c. Segmental
d. Enlargement of  blind spot

6) Retrobulbar neuritis is characterized by all except:
a. Afferent papillary defect
b. Sudden dimunation of vision
c. Pain on elevation of eye ball
d. Blurred disc margin

7) Superotemporal quadrantopia is caused by:
a. Parietal lobe tumor
b. Frontal lobe tumor
c. Temporal lobe tumor
d. Pituitory tumor

8) Papillitis is characterized by all of the following except:
a. Sudden loss of vision
b. Disc oedema
c. Hazy media
d. Normal papillary response

9) Bitemporal hemianopia occurs in:
a. Optic nerve glioma
b. Frontal lobe tumor
c. Posterior cerebral artery thrombosis
d. Aneurysm circle of willis

10) Functional defect of optic nerve can be diagnosed by:
a. Direct opthalmoscopy
b. Indirect opthalmoscopy
c. Perimetry and field charting
d. Retinoscopy

11) All of the following are true about papilloedema except:
a. Blurring of disc margin
b. Congestion of retinal veins
c. Soft with exudates around  the disc
d. Suddent loss of vision

12) RE, Superotemporal quadrantopsia, left eye centrocaecal scotoma withn headache:
a. Left optic nerve+ chiasma
b. Left optic tract+ chiasma
c. Right optic nerve + chiasma
d. Right optic tract + chiasma

13) Contralateral  optic atrophy with papilloedema is seen in ipsilateral:
 a. Fisher syndrome
b. Foster- Kennedy syndrome
c. Vogt- Koyanagi –Harada syndrome

14) All of the following are caused by third palsy except:
a. Ptosis
b. Mydriasis
c. Medial deviation of eyeball
d. Pupillary reflex lost

15) In unilateral afferent pupillary defect, when light is moved from narmal to affected eye, there is:
a. Dilation on affected side and constriction on normal side
b. Dilation on normal side and constriction on affected side
c. Dilation on both pupils
d. Constriction in both pupils

16) All of the following can cause optic neuritis except:
a. Rifampicin
b. Digoxin
c. Chloroquine
d. Ethambutol

17) A 40 years old lady presents with bilateral papilloedema. CT Scan shows normal ventricles, diagnosis is:
a. Being intracranial hypertension
b. Malignant hypertension
c. Papillities
d. Raised intraocular

18) Chalky white optic disc on fundus examination is seen in all except:
a. Syphilis
b. Lebers hereditary optic neuropathy
c. Post papilloedema optic neuritis
d. Traumatic injury to the optic nerve

19) Unilatersl proptosis with bilateral VIth nerve palsy, diagnosis is:
a. Grave disease
b. Retinoblastoma
c. Pseudotumor of orbit
d. Cavernous sinus thrombosis

20) First sign of optic nerve disease:
a. Papilloedema
b. Colour blindness
c. Affected pupillary defect
d. Efferent pupillary defect

21) Wernicke’s hemianopic pupillary response is seen in lesions at:
a. Optic tract
b. Optic chiasma
c. Optic radiation
d. Lateral geniculate body

22) A patient with supreaseller extension of pituitary tumor present with:
a. Bitemporal hemianopia
b. Binasal hemianopia
c. Pie in sky
d. Right homonymous hemianopia

23) Left-sided lateral gaze is affected in lesion of:
a. Right frontal lobe
b. Right occipital lobe
c. left occipital lobe
d. Left frontal lobe

24) All are features of optic nerve disease except:
a. Afferent papillary defect
b. Sudden loss of vision
c. Headache and vomiting
d. Pain on movement of eyeball

25) All are true regarding optic neuritis except:
a. Decreased visual acuity
b. Decreased papillary response
c. Abnormal electroretinogram
d. Abnormal visual evoked response

26) Vitamin B-12 deficiency is likely to cause:
a. Bitemporal hemianopia
b. Binsal hemianopia
c. Heteronymous hemianopia
d. Centrocasecal scotoma

27) Fundoscopic features of papilloedema include all except:
a. Blurred disc margin
d. Deep cup
c. Absent venous pulsations
d. Bending of blood vessels

28) Miners nystagmus is:
a. Vertical
b. Rotatory
c. Horizontal
d. Pendular

29) Internal opthalmoplegia occurs in:
a. Diabetes
b. Syphilis
c. Diphtheria
d. All of the above

30) Heteronymous hemianopia is seen in all except:
a. Chromophobe adenoma
b. B/L aneurysm of internal carotid artery
c. Occipital lobe lesion
d. Chiasmal lobe

31) Length of intraorbital optic nerve is:
a. 10 mm
b. 6mm
c. 1 mm.
d. 25mm

32) In webers syndrome, there is:
a. 4th nerve plasy
b. 3rd nerve plasy
c. 5th nerve plasy
d. 7th nerve plasy

33) A25 years old lady suddenly develops unilateral loss of vision decreasing from 6/6 to 4/60 with ill-sustained reaction of the pupil. She complaints of slight headache and some pain in orbit when looking upward. The most likely diagnosis:
a. Acute frontal sinusitis
b. Acute iritis
c. Brain tumor
d. Retrobular neuritis

34) Pupillomotor fibres of third cranial nerve travel along with:
a. Nerve to medial rectues
b. Nerve to superior rectues
c. Nerve to inferior rectues
d. Nerve to inferior oblique

35) Cerebello-pointine angle tumor produces following at the earliest:
a. Diplopia
b. Loss of corneal reflex
c. Ipsilateral squint
d. Ipsilateral tongue paralysis

36) Optic disc in consequetive opticatrophy is characterized by:
a. Cupping
b. Pale color
c. Pink color
d. Yellow color

37) In pupillarity reflex arc, the connction from pretectal
nucleus to EWN is in which neuron order:
a. First
b. Second
c. Third
d. Fourth

38) U/L third nerve palsy with C/LSR palsy and B/L ptosis. Lesion involves:
a. Cavernous sinus
b. Peripheral fibres of one nerve and sup erior fibres of C/L nerve
c. Multiple sites
d. Third nerve nuclear complex

39) Diplopia with limitation of adduction of rt eye with abduction saccades of it eye and normal convergence is due to:
a. Duane’s retraction syndrome
b. Partial 3rd nerve palsy
c.Internuclear opthamoplegia
d. Absence of medial rectus

40) Features of Horner’s syndrome caused by pancoast tumor are all the following except:
a. Miosis
b. Ptosis
c. Excessive sweating
d. Loss of cilliospinal reflex

41) Bielschowsky test is used in which cranial nerve palsy:
a. I N
b. II N
c. III N
d. IV N

42) In oculomotor palsy involved is:
a. Posterior communicating artery
b. Middle cerebellar artery
c. Superior cerebellar artery
d. Anterior communicating artery

43) Pupillary reflex is retained in lesion of:
a. Optic nerve
b. Oculomotor nerve
c. Ciliary ganglion
d. Lateral geniculate

44) Most common adverse effect on eye in oral contraceptive usage is:
a. Color blindness
b. Ring scotoma
c. Optic neuritis
d. Nystagmus

45)True about blind spot is:
a. It is an absolute scotoma
b.  It is negative scotoma
c. It is relative scotoma
d. Both a and b
e. Both b and c

KEY OF MCQ’s
1
D
11
D
21
A
31
D
41
D
2
D
12
A
22
A
32
B
42
A
3
B
13
B
23
A
33
D
43
D
4
B
14
C
24
C
34
D
44
C
5
B
15
C
25
C
35
B
45
D
6
D
16
A
26
D
36
B


7
C
17
A
27
B
37
C


8
D
18
C
28
B
38
D


9
D
19
D
29
D
39
C


10
C
20
C
30
C
40
C


















                                                                                                  
OPTICS AND SQUINT:

1. Uncrossed diplopia is seen in-
a. Esophoria
b. Exophoria
c. Esotropia
d. Exotropia

2. Which of the following material is best suited for manufacture of gas permeable contact lenses-
a. Glass
b. Methylmethacrylate
c. Silicon
d. Rubber

3. Fixation of visual reflexes is accomplished by-
a. 6mth
b. 1 yr
c. 2yr
d. 3 yr

4.True regarding factor to focus rays on retina:
a. Lens
b. Corneal curvature
c. Axial
d. Media length of eyeball

7. The power of eye is:
a. 15D
b. 29D
c. 58D
d. 100D

8. Secondary deviation is more than primary deviation in:
a. Spastic squint
b. Paralytic squint
c. Concomitant squint
d. Inconcomitant squint

9. In a 3yrs old child mydriatic used for refraction:
a. 1 % Atropine drops
b. 1 % atropine ointment
c. homtropine drops
d. Tropicamide drops

10. Tt of amblyopia in a 3yr old child is:
a. Orthoptic exercises
b. Occlusion of one eye
c. Prism
d. Surgery

11. Tt of accommodative strabismus is-
a. Orthoptic exercises
b. Lens implant
c. Refractive correction
d. Prism correction

12. Amblypia should be corrected by:
a. <5 yr of age
b. <5-8 yr age
c. 8-12 yr age
d. 10-15 yr age    

13. All are true about paralytic strabismus except:
a. Binocular diplopia
b. False orientation
c. Primary deviation= Secondary deviation
d. False projection

14. Fluctuating refractive errors with cataract are seen in:
a.Morgagnial cataract
b. Diabetic cataract
c. Intumescent cataract
d. Traumatic cataract

15. Downwards and lateral gaze is action of:
a. IO
b. SO
c. IR
d. SR

16. Infant is physiologically:
a. Myopic
b. Hypermetropic
c. Astigmatic
d. Emmetropic

17. All are features of paralytic squint:
a. Confusion
b. Deviation
c. Streopsis
d. Diplopia

18. Which is not a clinical feature of right sided VIth nerve palsy-
a. Convergent squint
b. Face turn to left
c. Inability to abduct right eye
d. Diplopia

19. Action of superior oblique muscle is:
a. Intorsion
b. Extorsion
c. Depression
d. Abduction

20. All are features of macular function test except:
a. Maddox- rod test
b. Two point dicrimination test
c. Electroretinogram test
d. Laser inferometry

21. Soft contact lens uses have high tendency to develop-
a. Recurrent corneal ulcer
b. Acanth amoeba ulcer
c. Pseudomonas infection
d. Pneumococcal infection
22. Inverted purkinfe image is seen on-
a. Anterior surface of cornea
b. Anterior surface of lens
c. Posterior surface of cornea
d. Posterior surface of lens

23. MAgnification caused by direct opthalmoscope is-
a. 5 times
b. 15 times
c. 50 times
d. 10 times

24. A lady using contact lens developed photophobia, blurred vision and watery discharge was diagnosed to be suffering from over-wearing syndrome. Most appropriate management is-
a. Avoid use of lens for48-72 hrs
b. Antibiotic and cyloplegic
c. change the contact lens
d. Send the lens for culture and sensitivity

25. After maximum correction, the vision o RE is 6/36 and left eye is 6/6 and with 66 cm retinoscopy RE is +4.5 D and LE is 1.5 D with normal fundus. Most likely causes of defect of vision:
a. Refractive error
b. Amblyopia
c. Optic nevritis
d. Anisometropia

26. A child was taken to a doctor by his mother complaining that there is decrease in his school performance, his teacher says that he frequently squeezes his eyes and says that there is difficulty in seeing the black board. What is most probable diagnosis?
a. Myopia
b. Hypermtropia
c. Presbypio
d. Astigmatism

27. Basanti, A20 year old female presents with complaints of difficulty in reading near print. On examination there is ptosis and diplopia on looking in all direction. What is the most probable diagnosis?
a. Lateral rectus palsy
b. Oculomotor palsy
c. Presbyopia
d. Myasthenia gravis

28. A 16 yrs old boy complains of pain in right eye after refratometry, he was prescribed a +3.5 D sphere lens. The cover test is normal. There is no heterphoria. The diagnosis is:
a. Organic Amblyopia
b. Anisometropic Amblyopia
c. Emmetropic Amblyopia
d.Toxic Amblyopia

29. A 14 yrs old boy complains of pain during reading. On examination his both eyes are normal and vision with snellens reading is 6/5. He still complains of pain on occluding one eye. The diagnosis is:
a. Myopia
b. Pseudomyopia
c. Hypermtropia
d. Emmetropia

30. Retinoscopy is done on a 0.5 D myopic patient at  a distance of 1 metre. Movement of image will be-
a. Move with the mirror
b. Move opposite to mirror
c. No movement of image with the mirror
d. Image can move on any side

31. A soft contact lens user has corneal keratitis caused is:
a. Acanthamoeba ulcer
b. Erosion of cornea
c. Pseudomonas infection
d. Herpes Infection

32. A 35 yrs old Hypermetrope is using 1.5 D sph both eyes. Whenever his glasses slip downward on his nose, he will feel that his near vision:
a. Becomes enlarged
b. Becomes distorted
c. Becomes decreased
d. Becomes the same

33. Eye is deviated laterally and downwards, patient is unable to look up or medially, likely nerve involved is:
a. Trochlear
b. Trigeminal
c. Oculomotor
d. Abducent

34. Defect in Amblyopia lies in:
a. Lateral genuculate body
b. Afferent papillary reflex
c. Rods and cones
d. Retina

35. Visual acuity is test of:
a. light test
b. Color test
c. Contrast
d. Form sense

36. Yolk muscle in dexroelevation are:
a. Right RI and left SO
b. Right SR and left IO
c. Right SO and left RI
d. Right IO and left SR

37. Distant direct opthalmoscopy is done at a distance of:
a. 15 cm
b. 25 cm
c. 50 cm
d. 1 metre

38. Hirschberg test is used to detect:
a. Squint
b. Visual acuity
c. Retinal defect
d. Optic neuritis

39. Physiological tone of the ciliary muscle is:
a.1D
b. 1.5 D
c. 2D
d. 2.5D

40.Most common type of color blindness is:
a. Protanopes
b. Deutanopes
c. Tritanopes
d. None

41.Which of the following combination is false:
a. SR and SO are intorters
b. Sr and IR are adductors
c. SR and SO are abductors
d. IR and IO are extorters

42.Eye achieves adult size by:
a. 1 Year
b. 2 Year
c. 3 Year
d. 4 Year

41) Which of the following combination is false:
a) Sr and So are intorters
b) SR and Ir are adductors
c) SR and So are adbuctors
d) IR and IO are extorters

42) Eye achieves adult suize by:
a) 1 year
b) 2 year
c) 3 year
d) 4 year

43) In a mixed type of accommodative esotropia,
a) Child has normal AC\A but high refractive error
b) Child has abnormal AC\A ratio and normal refraction
c) Child has both increased AC\A and increased refraction for age
d) None of the above
44) Moddox wing is used for:
a) Measuring the amount of heterotropia\
b) Measuring the amount of heterophoria
c) Measuring the amount of hypertropia
d) Measuring the amount of hyperphoria


45) Which of the following is not a cycloplegic
a) Phenylephrine
b)nAtropine
c) Homatropine
d) Cyclopentolate

46)Secondary deaviation flows:
a) Donders law
b) Listing law
c) Hering law
d) Sherrington’s law

47) If the length of the eyeball decreases by 1mm, power will change by:
a) 1D
b) 2D
c) 3D
d) 4D

48) Pseaudoexotropia is a feature of:
a) Myopia
b) Hypermetropia
c) Astigmatism
d) Anisometropia

49) Which of the muscies does not arise from the apex of the orbit:
a) SO
b) IO
c) IR
d) SR

50) Which instrument is based on the principle of first purking fibres:
a) Retinoscope
b) Slit lamp
c) Homatropine
d) Cyclopentolate

51) Most rapidly acting cycloplegicis:
a) Atropine
b) Tropicamide
c) Homatropine
d) Cyclopentolate

52) Maddox rod is:
a) Series of fused cylindrical glasses
b) Series of fused prisms of increasing length
c) Series of alternating sphericreasing length
d) Series of alternating spherical and cylindrical glasses

53) An aphakic will see an increase in image size of:
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 20%
d) 30%

54) A patiest has spectacle correction of -6D and -8D . He has started seening  some opacities floating in front of his eye and that his vision is decreased in the last few days.  What is the best investingation:
a) Retinoscopy
b) Refraction
c) Indirect ophthalmopy
d) Distant direct ophthalmoscopy
55) Retinoscopy is done at a distance of:
a) 50cm
b)55cm
c)60cm
d)66cm
56) Soft contact leads to all the following except:
a) Acanthamoeba
b) Corneal vascularisation
c) Papillae formation
d) Folliculosis
57)Sudden increase in blood surge in diabetes causes:
a) Myopia
b) Anisometropia
c) Presbyopia
c) Anisometropia
d) Astigmatism
58) If retinoscopy is done at 1m distance the correction factor used while prescribing the glasses is -1D with retinoscopy performes at a distance of 50cm, the correction factor will be:
a) -2D
b) -1D
c) -2.5D
d) +1D

59) When an aphakic eye is corrected with multifocal IOL What will happen:
a)Distant vision obtained
b) Both distant and bear vision are corrected
c) Distant vision and near field of filed of vision are corrected
d) All of the above

60) Pincushion distortion with aphakic glasses is due to:
a) Periphery of the lens magnifying more than the centre of the lens
b) Center of the lens magnifying more than the periphery of the lens
c) Thickness of the lens
d) Size of the lens






KEY OF MCQ”s
1

11

21

31

41

51

2

12

22

32

42

52

3

13

23

33

43

53

4

14

24

34

44

54

5

15

25

35

45

55

6

16

26

36

46

56

7

17

27

37

47

57

8

18

28

38

48

58

9

19

29

39

49

59

10

20

30

40

50

60













                                                              














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